UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 12 – April 18) : 15 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2026

Explanation

— Delhi Dehradun Economic Corridor: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the Delhi-Dehradun Expressway on Tuesday (April 14). Built at a cost of Rs 11,868 crore, the 210-km highway is expected to cut down travel time to 2.5 hours.

— This includes Asia’s one of the largest wildlife elevated corridors at an average height of six to seven metres to accommodate even the largest mammal.

— The highway is designed for driving at a minimum speed of 100 kmph. Apart from connectivity to Dehradun, the highway is designed with a spur to Haridwar to facilitate connection with the Char Dham highway. The project was kicked off after Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of the highway on December 4, 2021.

— The final 20-kilometre stretch of the project passes through dense forest areas of the Shivalik Forest Division in Uttar Pradesh and the Rajaji Tiger Reserve and Dehradun Forest Division in Uttarakhand.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is/are the official language(s) of Meghalaya?

1. Garo

2. Khasi

3. Jantiya

4. English

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The topic is important for understanding official language provisions at the state level. It reflects focus on regional identity and administrative recognition of languages.

Explanation

— The Meghalaya cabinet announced the indigenous Khasi and Garo languages as the official languages of the state, in addition to English.

— The move comes amid a long-standing demand for the inclusion of Khasi and Garo – the languages of the state’s two largest tribes – in the Eight Schedule of the Constitution. Currently, all official business in the state is carried out in English.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the India-South Korea relations, consider the following statements:

1. India and South Korea do not have the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).

2. There is no FDI investor in India through South Korea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

South Korea is a key partner under India’s Act East Policy, making bilateral relations important for prelims. The topic reflects growing focus on Indo-Pacific partnerships and supply chain diversification. Aspirants must focus on bilateral relations for UPSC prelims especially if there is going to be an important visit or event. 

Explanation

— Economic relations between India and South Korea gathered momentum following the implementation of the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) in 2010. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The bilateral trade between the two countries stood at USD 21.5 billion between January and October 2025, and USD 25.1 billion in 2024. India’s major exports to South Korea include aluminum, iron, steel and cereals. South Korea is the 15th largest FDI investor in India, with a total investment of USD 929 million in 2024. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Consider the following statements:

1. This state marks 79 years of its formation on April 15 this year.

2. It came into being as a chief commissioner’s province — that is, a centrally administered territory — on April 15, 1948, with the integration of 30 erstwhile princely states.

3. It became a full-fledged state on January 25, 1971.

The above-mentioned statements refer to:

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Tripura

(d) Sikkim

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question tests knowledge of state reorganisation and historical evolution of Indian states. It also aligns with UPSC focus on integration of princely states and administrative changes post-Independence.

Explanation

— Himachal Pradesh marks 79 years of its formation on April 15 (Wednesday) this year. It came into being as a chief commissioner’s province — that is, a centrally administered territory — on April 15, 1948, with the integration of 30 erstwhile princely states.

— It would take two more decades for Himachal to become a full-fledged state, on January 25, 1971. Before this, however, Himachal was also a Union Territory — and nearly even became part of Punjab.

— Himachal Pradesh was created by integrating 30 princely hill states after Independence. It was initially administered as a chief commissioner’s province. Such provinces were administrative units in British India that were centrally governed and often lacked elected assemblies.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

To read more: On Himachal day, story of how the state nearly became part of Punjab

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Marine Spatial Planning (MSP), consider the following statements:

1. It is a tool for sustainable and integrated ocean management.

2. Recently, Tamil Nadu became the first state to launch the Marine Spatial Plan.

3. It would help for sustainable utilisation of marine resources in energy and economic activities like developing ports.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Marine Spatial Planning (MSP) is an emerging tool in sustainable ocean governance and Blue Economy. It also aligns with UPSC emphasis on coastal regulation, marine resources, and integrated planning approaches.

Explanation

— The MSP is a tool for sustainable and integrated ocean management aimed at boosting the blue economy and strengthening climate resilience. It helps for sustainable utilisation of marine resources in energy, economic activities like developing ports, harbours, setting up industries, environment, fisheries, aquaculture and tourism and to formulate policies accordingly. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

— The Odisha government recently signed a memorandum of understanding with the National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR) under the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences to launch a Marine Spatial Plan (MSP) in the state for integrated coastal and marine planning. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Odisha has a huge coastline of more than 550km and the coastline is defined in many ways, featuring lagoons, mangroves and estuaries. According to Chithra Arumugam, additional chief secretary, science and technology department, Odisha, the NCCR will study the components of the water in the entire ocean adjoining Odisha’s coast as part of the MoU.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

The term ‘Undercarriage failure’ refers to:

(a) the malfunctioning of the aircraft’s landing gear system.

(b) a failure in the aircraft’s fuel injection and distribution system.

(c) a breakdown in the aircraft’s onboard navigation and radar equipment.

(d) the loss of cabin pressurisation during high-altitude flight.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Aviation safety terms like “undercarriage failure” are often in news due to aircraft incidents and emergency landings. The topic helps in understanding basic aviation terminology and accident reporting, which can be asked in prelims.

Explanation

— Undercarriage failure is a broad term that refers to the malfunctioning of the aircraft’s landing gear system — the wheels and supporting structures used for take-off, landing and taxiing.

— An Indian Air Force fighter jet suffered an undercarriage failure while landing at Pune airport on the night of April 17, leaving the runway unusable for more than nine hours and disrupting both military and civilian operations.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Kirandul and Bacheli are twin towns in India renowned for the:

(a) Coal mines

(b) Copper mines

(c) Bauxite ore mines

(d) Iron ore mines

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Aspirants must focus on important mining locations, which can be asked in Indian geography and resource distribution. The topic aligns with UPSC focus on location-based questions from maps and economic geography.

Explanation

— NMDC Limited (formerly National Mineral Development Corporation) has delivered the strongest operational performance in its 68-year history. In FY26, it crossed 50 million tonnes of annual iron ore production for the first time, reaching 53.15 million tonnes, up 21% year-on-year.

— NMDC operates three highly mechanised mining complexes: Two in Bailadila, Chhattisgarh (Kirandul and Bacheli, combined capacity roughly 37 million tonnes per annum), and one in Donimalai, Karnataka (Kumaraswamy and Donimalai pits, roughly 14 MTPA).

— Kirandul and Bacheli are twin towns in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh, India, renowned for the massive iron ore mines.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the types of naval mines, consider the following pairs:

1. Drifting mines – These are large, anchored ‘contact’ mines that float just under the water’s surface.

2. Bottom mines – These are ‘influence’ mines that rest on the sea floor.

3. Limpet mines – These are small explosives that a diver can attach to a ship’s hull.

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Naval mine warfare is in news due to evolving maritime security challenges and naval strategies. It is important for understanding types of naval mines and their operational use in modern warfare.

Explanation

— Contact mines: As their name suggests, contact mines detonate when a vessel makes physical contact with (or otherwise comes close to) them in the water. These are the easiest to deploy.

An old-fashioned ‘contact’ mine. Wikimedia Commons

— Influence mines: These technically advanced warheads do not require physical contact. They rely on sensors to identify specific target vessel characteristics or “signatures” — magnetic, acoustic, pressure, seismic, or underwater electronic signatures.

— There are also controlled mines, which may be detonated remotely.

— Drifting mines: These are placed in the water and move with the current. Hence, pair 1 is not correct.

— Moored mines: These are large, anchored ‘contact’ mines that float just under the water’s surface. They release a hundred pounds of explosive force or more when they come in contact with a ship.

— Bottom mines: These are ‘influence’ mines that rest on the sea floor. As mentioned above, such influence mines use a combination of sensors to target a ship, exploding with hundreds of pounds of explosive force. Hence, pair 2 is correct.

— Limpet mines: These are small explosives that a diver can attach to a ship’s hull. It can be set to go off after a particular amount of time. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

In India, the Delimitation Commissions have been constituted in:

1. 1963

2. 1952

3. 2002

4. 2012

5. 1972

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Delimitation is a core aspect of electoral representation and parliamentary democracy in India. It has gained importance due to ongoing debates on future delimitation after Census and regional balance.

Explanation

— Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body. The job of delimitation is assigned to a high power body. Such a body is known as Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission.

— In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

The Hmar People’s Convention-Democratic (Lalhmingthanga Sanate’s faction) is the only remaining underground armed group operating within:

(a) Assam

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Mizoram

(d) Meghalaya

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Recent developments in insurgency involving groups like the Hmar People’s Convention-Democratic highlight internal security dynamics in Northeast India. It is important for understanding peace processes, ceasefire agreements, and remaining militant groups in northeastern states.

Explanation

— The Mizoram government has announced that it signed a ‘Memorandum of Settlement’ with the Hmar People’s Convention-Democratic (Lalhmingthanga Sanate’s faction), which it says it had identified as the “only remaining underground armed group operating within Mizoram”.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

During the debates of the Constituent Assembly, some members opposed the idea of reservation of seats for women.

With reference to this, consider the following:

1. Hansa Mehta

2. Renuka Ray

3. R. K. Chaudhary

Who among the above emerged as prominent voices against the reservation of seats for women?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The issue is in news due to debates around the Women’s Reservation Bill being defeated in the Lok Sabha, making the historical context crucial. Revisiting positions taken during the Constituent Assembly of India Debates helps aspirants understand the continuity of arguments on women’s political representation.

Explanation

— The history of legislation pertaining to women’s reservation in India is complex. While the idea is today framed as a contemporary breakthrough, its inception can be traced back to the Constituent Assembly debates held between 1946 and 1950.

— In these debates, two out of the 15 women who were part of the Assembly argued unrelentingly against the implementation of reservation for women. Surprisingly, the only one in favour was a man: R K Chaudhari.

— Hansa Mehta and Renuka Ray emerged as prominent voices against the reservation of seats for women.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

With reference to the Multi-Lane Free Flow (MLFF) tolling system, consider the following statements:

1. MLFF enables vehicles to pass through toll points without stopping, thereby improving traffic flow on high-density highways.

2. Under MLFF, toll collection involves technologies such as Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) readers and Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) cameras, without the use of boom barriers.

3. In the absence of human intervention in MLFF, discrepancies in vehicle identification may allow some vehicles to pass without paying the toll.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Explanation

— Under the existing electronic tolling system, vehicles have to stop at the fee plaza to pay the user fee. In case of a discrepancy, the toll gate employee verifies the details, after which the vehicles are allowed to pass through. An MLFF system can make this process smoother for commuters and commercial vehicles, especially on high-density roads or highways.

— However, the MLFF or barrier-less tolling system does not have boom barriers. The toll is collected after high-performance Radio Frequency Identification readers and Automatic Number Plate Recognition cameras read the FASTag and VRN. In the absence of human intervention in this process, a mismatch in the VRN linked to the FASTag could see commuters pass without paying the fee.

— Under the MLFF framework, enforcement actions, including issuance of electronic notices to vehicles for non-payment of the user fee, will significantly depend on accurate and verified vehicle identification data.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Recently, the term “Mosquito Fleet” was seen in the news. It is best associated with:

(a) A group of small and fast naval vessels used for coastal defence

(b) A network of drones used for agricultural pest control

(c) A cluster of satellites deployed for weather monitoring

(d) A public health initiative to control mosquito-borne diseases

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Terms seen in news headlines can be confusing if not revised thoroughly, especially when paired with cleverly designed, perplexing options. UPSC often exploits such nuances. These terms become relevant due to the Iran and US-Israel war.

Explanation

— “Mosquito Fleet” is a flotilla of small, fast, agile boats designed to harass shipping, and it forms the heart of the naval forces deployed by Iran’s Revolutionary Guard, a force separate from Iran’s regular navy.

— These boats, and especially the missiles and drones that the Guard navy can launch from them, or from camouflaged sites onshore, have been the main threat stymieing shipping through the Strait of Hormuz.

— The boats are often too small to appear on satellite images, and they are moored along piers within deep caves excavated along the rocky coastline, ready to be deployed in minutes, analysts said. Their arsenal poses a major threat to commercial ships in the Gulf and the strait.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to the latest World Economic Outlook released by the International Monetary Fund, consider the following statements:

Statement 1: According to the IMF, India has slipped down in the rankings of the world’s largest economies.

Statement 2: India has suffered significant setbacks in the last twelve months in terms of the country’s GDP in local currency and the exchange rate with the US dollar.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1

(b) Both Statement 1  and  Statement 2  are correct but Statement 2  is not the correct explanation of Statement 1

(c) Statement 1  is correct but Statement 2  is incorrect

(d) Statement 1  is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Reports like the World Economic Outlook frequently appear in current affairs and are a key source for factual as well as conceptual questions in Prelims. UPSC often frames tricky questions by combining rankings with underlying concepts like GDP measurement and exchange rates.

Explanation

— In May last year, Niti Aayog CEO BVR Subrahmanyam declared that India had overtaken Japan to become the fourth-largest economy in the world. But far from becoming the 3rd-largest, India has slid down to the 6th rank. 

—  According to the latest World Economic Outlook (WEO) released by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), India is no longer the 4th largest economy in the world. According to the latest WEO, in 2026 India’s gross domestic product — the total value of all goods and services produced inside the country — will be around $4.15 trillion (up from $3.92 trillion in 2025) while the UK’s GDP will be $4.27 trillion (up from $4 trillion in 2025) and Japan’s GDP would actually fall from $4.48 trillion in 2025 to $4.38 trillion in 2026.

— When the IMF calculates its rankings in US dollar terms, it uses two data points: One, a country’s GDP in the local currency and two, the exchange rate with dollar to arrive at a dollar figure. On both these counts, India has suffered significant setbacks in the last twelve months.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

NASA has recently approved the Rosalind Franklin Support and Augmentation (ROSA) project for implementation. This mission aims to:

(a) Study the atmosphere of Venus using orbiter-based instruments

(b) Assist a Mars rover mission in searching for signs of past life

(c) Deploy a space telescope to study exoplanets

(d) Conduct asteroid mining feasibility experiments

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Missions of NASA, especially those linked to planetary exploration like the Rosalind Franklin rover, are frequently in news and form a key part of science & tech current affairs. UPSC often frames questions by testing awareness of mission objectives along with eliminating closely related but incorrect options.

Explanation

— NASA has given approval for the agency’s Rosalind Franklin Support and Augmentation (ROSA) project to begin implementation, underscoring the agency’s continued partnership with ESA’s (European Space Agency) Rosalind Franklin mission. 

— The mission is led by ESA and that agency is responsible for providing the spacecraft, including the carrier module, the landing platform, as well as the rover and surface operations.

— Scheduled to launch in 2028, Rosalind Franklin will be the first Mars rover to search for signs of past or present life under the Red Planet’s surface. 

— NASA has selected SpaceX’s Falcon Heavy rocket to launch the Rosalind Franklin mission from Launch Complex 39A at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida. The mission is targeting opportunities to launch no earlier than late 2028.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for April 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

Previous Weekly Quiz

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