UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 05 – April 11) : 15 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2026

2. In 2015, the UK and Mauritius agreed to begin negotiations on the exercise of sovereignty over the Chagos archipelago.

3. In 2025, the UK signed a formal agreement transferring sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The dispute over the Chagos Archipelago is significant for understanding decolonisation, international maritime boundaries, and geopolitical developments in the Indian Ocean Region. The issue is relevant for UPSC Prelims due to its implications for global diplomacy, strategic interests, and India’s engagement with Mauritius. Keep a close watch on the timeline.

Explanation

— The Chagos archipelago, comprising 58 islands, lies roughly 500 km to the south of the Maldives archipelago in the Indian Ocean and around 2,000 km north-east of Mauritius.

— These islands were uninhabited until the late 18th century, when the French brought in slave labour from Africa and India to work in newly established coconut plantations. In 1814, France ceded the islands to the British.

— Since the 1980s, Mauritius has claimed sovereignty over the islands and moved international courts and tribunals. In 2019, the International Court of Justice issued an advisory opinion that the UK must hand over the islands “as soon as possible”. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— So in 2022, the UK and Mauritius agreed to begin negotiations on the exercise of sovereignty over the Chagos archipelago. This also came amid fears that not acting would push Mauritius towards China, which has deepened its footprint in Africa. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The Chagos archipelago. Diego Garcia is towards the bottom right. Wikimedia Commons

— In October 2024, the UK government announced its plans to return the islands. Shortly after, in May 2025, UK Prime Minister Keir Starmer signed a formal agreement transferring sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— As part of the deal, Diego Garcia would be immediately leased back to the UK for the next 99 years for £101 million a year. The UK government said that the treaty will protect the future of the military base and that the US would pay the base’s running costs.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

In India, which UTs have a legislative assembly and a chief minister?

1. Puducherry

2. Delhi

3. Andaman and Nicobar

4. Jammu and Kashmir

5. Ladakh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Understanding which Union Territories have legislatures is crucial for questions on India’s constitutional and administrative framework. The topic is highly relevant for UPSC Prelims as it tests knowledge of constitutional provisions and the federal structure. Aspirants should also read about the Delimitation Commission.

Explanation

— Elections to the Legislative Assemblies of Kerala and Assam, and the union territory (UT) of Puducherry, commenced on Thursday (April 9). Hence, revising key facts of polity is advised.

— Puducherry has a legislative assembly and a chief minister. Only two other UTs in India currently have legislatures: Delhi, and Jammu & Kashmir.

— Andaman and Nicobar and Ladakh are administered by the President of India through appointed Lieutenant Governors (LG).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Which of the following is/are the benefits of the Oak forests?

1. It assists watershed protection by promoting the recharge of springs.

2. It hosts lichens, bryophytes, and other flowering plants, creating layered microhabitats.

3. It is used as fuel wood and fodder by locals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Oak forests of the Indian Himalayan Region are ecologically significant for biodiversity conservation. Aspirants should also learn about other forest systems of India. Questions on forests are important for UPSC Prelims due to their relevance in conservation initiatives, forest types, and government programmes related to ecological restoration.

Explanation

— Oak belongs to the genus Quercus in the Fagaceae family and holds immense social and ecological importance in the Indian Himalayan regions.

— In the western Himalaya, five oaks have been reported, and the species are providers of numerous ecosystem services such as conservation of soil, water, native flora and fauna, and serve as a lifeline for the local communities.

— Oak forests assist watershed protection by promoting the recharge of springs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Oak forests support a remarkably diverse web of life. Their trees host lichens, bryophytes, pteridophytes (all three being moss-like plants), orchids, and other flowering plants, creating layered microhabitats. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— These ecosystems also sustain a wide range of animals. Birds and mammals such as jays, Himalayan langurs, red giant flying squirrels, and Asiatic black bears feed on oak leaves and acorns, often caching them for leaner periods. The forests are also teeming with snails, slugs, millipedes, woodlice, insects, and countless microorganisms — including bacteria, fungi and algae — making oak forests hubs of biodiversity at every level.

— In Uttarakhand, oak is used as fuel wood and fodder by locals from the forests near their settlements. In the area where the aforementioned study took place, the average fuel wood collection ranged between 25 and 30 kg per household per day (kg/hh/day), as the oak species are the most preferred fuel species due to their sustained burning and for the production of better heat. The fodder collection value ranged between 15 and 22 kg/hh/day. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— When oaks catch fire, the damaged stems are highly susceptible to pathogens, which weaken the tree and result in wind throw and breakage.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the “Spacecraft Mission Operations: SMOPS- 2026”, consider the following statements:

1. It was jointly organised by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

2. It was the first edition held in Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The “Spacecraft Mission Operations: SMOPS-2026” is significant for UPSC Prelims as it highlights India’s advancements in space technology. It reflects international collaboration and knowledge-sharing in space science. Such events are important from a current affairs perspective.

Explanation

According to the pib.gov.in:

— The second edition of the International Conference on “Spacecraft Mission Operations: SMOPS- 2026” with the theme “Innovative Operations for Smart and Sustainable Space Mission Management – Next Generation” will be held in Bangalore, India, from April 8 to 10, 2026. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— The conference, jointly organised by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), the Astronautical Society of India (ASI), and the International Academy of Astronautics (IAA), aims to cover a wide range of topics related to mission operations management, advanced mission design, automation, large constellations management, human spaceflight mission, space robotics, space policy, lunar and interplanetary exploration, cybersecurity in space systems, artificial intelligence, etc.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements:

1. The Finance Commission began awarding grants to rural local bodies from the 10th Finance Commission onward.

2. The grants have significantly contributed to strengthening the institutional capacity of Panchayati Raj institutions under the framework of Article 243G of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The role of the Finance Commission in devolving funds to local bodies is a crucial aspect of fiscal federalism and might appear in UPSC Prelims. The topic gains importance in the context of decentralisation, local governance reforms, and the implementation of recommendations following the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

Explanation

— As the Sixteenth Finance Commission’s five-year award period kicked in from April 1, a closer look at past commissions reveals a clear and rising trend: rural local bodies (RLBs), including gram, block, and district panchayats, are receiving more funds than ever before, with release of grant peaking at a historic high of 94.98 per cent under the last Commission.

— The data available with the Ministry of Panchayati Raj shows that the Fifteenth Finance Commission term (2020-26), which ended on March 31, also saw five states, Assam, Kerala, Mizoram, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh, receiving 100 per cent of RLB grants allocated to them.

— The data show that the Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended a total grant of Rs 2,97,555 crore for rural local bodies during its award period (2020-26), including Rs 60,750 crore allocated during the interim period (2020-21). Out of this, Rs 2,82,632 crore (94.94 per cent) was released to the RLBs till March 31, the highest since the 10th Finance Commission.

— The Finance Commission began awarding grants to rural local bodies from the 10th Finance Commission onward. The corresponding figures for release stood at 91 per cent during the 14th Finance Commission and 90.5 per cent during the 13th Finance Commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— “The performance under the 15th Finance Commission period reflects a strong commitment towards cooperative federalism and decentralised governance. The grants have significantly contributed to strengthening the institutional capacity of Panchayati Raj institutions under the framework of Article 243G of the Constitution of India,” said a source at the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— While Statement 2 correctly highlights the impact of these grants, it does not explain why the Finance Commission began awarding them. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following pairs:

1. Artemis I – It was an uncrewed spacecraft that went around the Moon and came back.

2. Artemis II – It was the first ever crewed mission of NASA that seeks to get human beings on the Moon.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The Artemis programme of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration is crucial for understanding recent advancements in lunar exploration. It is important for UPSC prelims due to its role in the race to the Moon. Aspirants should also keep a track of other important missions of NASA and ISRO.

Explanation

— After a historic journey around the Moon, the four astronauts onboard NASA’s Artemis II mission returned to Earth this morning (April 11).

— In all, during their 10-day journey, the astronauts on the Artemis II mission travelled a distance of about 1.12 million km, which incidentally is not the highest by a manned mission.

— The Apollo 17 mission, the last of the Apollo missions, for instance, travelled a total distance of about 2.38 million km. The average distance of the Moon from the Earth is about 3,84,400 km, so a point-to-point return journey would be at least 7,68,800 km.

— At the time of re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere, the Orion spacecraft was travelling at a speed of about 11-12 km/sec (about 40,000-42,000 kmph). This is much higher than the 26,000-28,000 kmph speeds at which the spacecraft coming from the International Space Station (ISS) or other similar low-Earth orbits re-enter the atmosphere.

— Artemis II was the first crewed mission of the Artemis programme of NASA that seeks to get human beings back on the Moon, more than five decades after the Apollo programme got 12 astronauts, in six different historic missions, to walk on the Moon. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

— The six Apollo missions had happened barely 12 years after the beginning of the space age, and while these marked a dream technology leap, the space technology ecosystem at that time was too nascent to capitalise on these to make further progress. So, the Moon landings became standalone successes.

— The first mission of the Artemis programme, in 2022, was an uncrewed spacecraft that went around the Moon and came back. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

The El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) has three phases, and the phase is based on the Relative Oceanic Niño Index, a temperature value measured in a specific region, known as the Niño 3.4, along the Pacific Ocean.

With reference to the above statement, consider the following:

1. La Niña is declared when this value is equal or over 0.5 degree Celsius.

2. El Niño is declared when this value is equal or lower 0.5 degree Celsius.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The El Niño–Southern Oscillation is a critical topic in climatology. ENSO’s impact on India’s agriculture, economy, and monsoon performance makes it highly relevant from both geography and environment perspectives.

Explanation

— A ‘very strong’ El Niño is likely to develop along the Pacific Ocean during the latter half of this year and persist till the end of 2026, the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) said.

— The El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a global ocean-atmospheric phenomenon that is based on the ocean surface temperature along the equatorial and central Pacific Ocean. ENSO has three phases : El Niño (warm), neutral and La Niña (cool) and the phase is based on the Relative Oceanic Niño Index, a temperature value measured of a specific region, known as the Niño 3.4, along the Pacific Ocean. El Niño is declared when this value is equal or over 0.5 degree Celsius and La Niña when it is equal or lower than 0.5 degree Celsius. These phases alternate once every two to seven years. El Niño affects global weather and is known to cause extreme heat, drought and below average rainfall. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements:

1. He was one of India’s greatest social reformers and a guiding light for generations. This year marks the beginning of his 200th birth anniversary celebrations.

2. His focus on equality and equitable measures is also evident in his submissions to the Education Commission of 1882. He argued for compulsory primary education up to the age of 12.

3. The Satyashodhak Samaj, founded by him, was one of the most important social reform movements in modern India.

The above mentioned statements refer to:

(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(c) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

(d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Questions in the UPSC prelims can be asked on important personalities who have contributed towards the Indian society. Aspirants should read about other popular personalities, which were in the news.

Explanation

— Paying tribute to social reformer Jyotirao Phule on his birth anniversary, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said he was an example of how social change could happen within society and did not have to wait for a change from outside.

— 11th April is the birth anniversary of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule, one of India’s greatest social reformers and a guiding light for generations. This year, the occasion carries even greater significance, as it marks the beginning of his 200th birth anniversary celebrations. “His contribution to our civilisational journey lies in the hope he aroused, the confidence he instilled and the strength his thoughts continue to give to millions of people across the nation.” He said Mahatma Phule was blessed with a spirit of enquiry since his childhood, which remained constant in his journey. Quoting the reformer, the PM said: “The more questions we generate, the more knowledge emerges from them.”

— His focus on equality and equitable measures is also evident in his submissions to the Education Commission of 1882. Phule argued for compulsory primary education up to the age of 12.

— He insisted that higher education must be within the reach of all, and proposed targeted government scholarships for those communities “amongst whom education has made no progress”, alongside “more liberal” and proactive measures to advance women’s education.

— Phule’s subsequent interventions aimed at promoting the rights of all through institutional and structural efforts: The establishment of schools for women and oppressed castes, the opening of public wells to those deemed “untouchable”, and advocacy for widow remarriage alongside a critique of child marriage.

— He built institutions that translated this vision into action, contributing to a just society. The Satyashodhak Samaj, founded by him, was one of the most important social reform movements in modern India.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Consider the following statements:

1. An induction cooktop works by generating a rapidly changing electromagnetic field.

2. The changing electromagnetic field induces eddy currents in the metal cookware, and the electrical resistance of the metal converts this electrical energy into heat.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The working principle of an induction cooktop is important as it was in the news. The topic is relevant from the perspective of energy efficiency, sustainable appliances, and the science behind modern household innovations. Aspirants should have knowledge of science in everyday life, which forms the syllabus of the UPSC prelims.

Explanation

— A basic induction cooktop is increasingly being seen as a viable substitute for several reasons. First, it costs roughly as much as one LPG cylinder on the black market, around Rs 3,000-4,000. Second, unlike traditional gas stoves that rely on combustion to create an open flame, induction stoves use electricity to heat the vessel directly.

— An induction cooktop works by generating a rapidly changing electromagnetic field. When the metal pan is placed on the surface, it comes under the magnetic field. The electrical resistance of the metal creates an electrical friction between the two, which then converts the kinetic energy of the moving electrons directly into thermal energy or heat. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— An induction works best with ferromagnetic cookware, which contains materials like cast iron or magnetic stainless steel that respond to magnetic fields. But, these compatible cookwares are more expensive than the ones normally used on gas stoves, making them less attractive for households making a temporary or partial shift to electric cooking.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Himalayan Griffon, consider the following statements:

1. It is listed as ‘Near Threatened’ on the Red List of the International Union for Conservation of Nature.

2. It is typically found at elevations between 2,000 and 4,500 meters.

3. It plays a vital ecological role as a scavenger.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The Himalayan Griffon is an important species that can be asked as a question in UPSC Prelims exam. Aspirants must be aware about the IUCN status, which can be beneficial in eliminating options.

Explanation

— The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve witnessed a rare sight of several Himalayan Griffon vultures collapsing. A total of 25 vultures were found dead, while six were rescued in an unconscious state and given injections; four of them later flew away. The remaining birds are being treated at the range campus.

— The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List lists the raptor (Gyps himalayensis) as ‘Near Threatened’. According to experts, the Himalayan Griffon vulture, unlike the Oriental White-backed, Slender-billed, and Lone-billed vultures, is not an endangered species. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It serves an important ecological function as a scavenger. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The Griffon Vulture is normally found at elevations ranging from 2,000 to 4,500 meters. It favours wide cliffs and rocky ledges to roost and nest. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

The term “Axis of Autocracy,” seen in international relations discourse, is often used to refer to which of the following countries?

(a) Russia and China

(b) United States and Israel

(c) United States and China

(d) Israel and Iran

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Due to the ongoing Iran and US–Israel conflict, you are likely to come across such terms frequently. It is advisable to make a note of them, as they can lead to confusing questions in the UPSC Prelims.

Explanation

— China, Russia, and Iran are regarded as part of the “Axis of Autocracy,” a term used in Washington policy circles to refer to the strategic alignment of authoritarian states.

— This term is often seen in the news, especially in the context of the ongoing conflict. Recently, it came into focus again when, a day before the ceasefire was announced, China and Russia, Iran’s key strategic allies, vetoed a United Nations Security Council (UNSC) resolution aimed at enhancing security and protecting commercial shipping in the Strait of Hormuz.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Consider the following statements:

1. Only four Union Territories in India currently have legislatures and Chief Ministers.

2. Puducherry Lieutenant-Governor (LG) is not bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, and can operate as an independent authority in routine administration.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

With elections in Puducherry in the news, it is a good opportunity for aspirants to revisit basic concepts related to Union Territories and governance.

Explanation

— Elections to the Legislative Assemblies of Kerala and Assam, and the union territory (UT) of Puducherry, commenced on April 9, 2026.

— It should be noted that despite its UT status, Puducherry has a legislative assembly and a chief minister. Only two other UTs in India currently have legislatures: Delhi, and Jammu & Kashmir. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

— Union territories are governed under Part VIII of the Constitution, comprising Articles 239 to 242. This section entrusts the administration of UTs to the Indian President, via appointed administrators. Thus, most UTs, including Chandigarh, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli, and the island territories of the Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep, have no elected legislature, and are governed by administrators.

— Puducherry’s legislature: It enjoys a relatively broad scope of powers as compared to National Capital Territory (Delhi), with no such subject restrictions. However, it is subject to parliamentary scrutiny: Article 246(4) empowers Parliament to legislate on any subject for any Union Territory, regardless of whether it falls under the State or Concurrent List. Thus, if a conflict arises between a law passed by the Puducherry Legislative Assembly and the Parliament, the parliamentary law will prevail.

— The distribution of powers between the elected government and the Lieutenant-Governor (LG) is explicitly laid out in Article 239AA, while Puducherry operates under Article 239A and the 1963 Union Territories Act, which does not clearly delineate the LG’s discretionary powers.

— This matter was clarified by the Supreme Court in K. Lakshminarayanan v. Union of India (2019), which held that the Puducherry LG is bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, and cannot operate as an independent authority in routine administration. The LG may intervene only under exceptional circumstances when a matter is referred to the President due to a genuine difference of opinion. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

— Article 240 of the Constitution empowers the President to make regulations for certain UTs, including Puducherry. In practice, this provision is exercised when the legislature is not functional, for instance, when the assembly is dissolved or suspended.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

‘Sajjadanashin’ and ‘Mutawalli’, terms recently seen in the news, refer to:

(a) Officials associated with the administration of cultural festivals in West Asian countries, particularly in Iran

(b) Custodians of historical archival records from medieval Persia

(c) Positions related to the spiritual leadership and administrative management of Islamic religious endowments such as dargahs and waqf properties

(d) Titles given to tribal leaders in desert regions of the Middle East

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Aspirants must note that these terms were seen in current affairs, making them relevant for UPSC Prelims. It is important not to delve too deep, but to be familiar with their basic meaning and context.

Explanation

— The case in brief is Syed Mohammed Adil Pasha Quadri v. Syed Hasnal Mussanna Sha Khadri, where the Supreme Court of India resolved a 37-year-old succession dispute.

— The case involved rival claims to the office of Sajjadanashin (spiritual head) at two Karnataka Dargahs.

— The Supreme Court held that “Sajjadanashin is the spiritual head of Waqf and declaration of Sajjadanashin is a religious affair, however, role of Mutawalli of a Waqf only pertains to the administration and management of the Waqf.” Hence, the positions of a Sajjadanashin and the Mutawalli are not the same, even if one person may sometimes wear both hats.

— The order resolves a private succession dispute and also echoes a larger understanding of who actually controls a shrine.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to the ‘nuclear triad’, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to the ability to launch nuclear missiles from platforms in the air, on land, and at sea.

2. Despite having INS Arihant and INS Arighaat, India is yet to be part of the nuclear triad.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Though largely definitional, the concept of the nuclear triad gains importance in the context of current affairs with the induction of INS Aridaman. Defence-related developments, especially those enhancing strategic capabilities, should not be ignored for the UPSC Prelims.

Explanation

— A nuclear triad refers to the ability to launch nuclear missiles from platforms in the air, land and at sea. In the case of India, such missiles (such as the Agni series) can be launched from land, and fighter aircraft such as the Rafales, Su-30MKIs, and Mirage 2000s can deliver nuclear warheads from the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— India recently inducted its third nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), INS Aridaman, on Friday, significantly strengthening its sea-based nuclear deterrence capabilities.

— With INS Aridaman’s induction, India will have three operational ballistic missile submarines at sea for the first time.

— The indigenous SSBN (ship submersible ballistic nuclear) is designed to carry more long-range nuclear-tipped missiles than INS Arihant and INS Arighaat, which were commissioned in 2016 and 2024, respectively.

— The latest induction will also strengthen India’s nuclear triad. India is part of a select group of countries with nuclear triad capabilities. These include the US, Russia, China, and France. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to basic astronomical concepts, consider the following statements:

1. The Hubble constant describes the present rate of expansion of the Universe.

2. A megaparsec is a unit used to measure very large distances in astronomy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Questions based on fundamental scientific concepts are frequently asked in the UPSC Preliminary Examination, particularly when such concepts are in the news.

Explanation

— An international collaboration of astronomers has made the most precise direct measurement to date of how fast the Universe is expanding.

— The Ho Distance Network (H0DN) Collaboration reports a value of the Hubble constant – the number that describes the Universe’s present expansion rate – with just over 1% precision. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The study to be published in Astronomy & Astrophysics reports a value of: Ho = 73.50 ± 0.81 kilometers per second per megaparsec.

— According to an official statement issued today a Megaparsec is a unit astronomers use to measure very large cosmic distances and equals about 3.26 million light-years (1 light year ~ 9.5 trillion kilometers). The new Ho measurement shows that for every megaparsec of distance, a galaxy’s speed away from us increases by about 73.5 kilometers per second. In our expanding universe, more distant galaxies move away faster than nearby galaxies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Achieving this percent-level precision of Ho helps astronomers better estimate the age, size, and future evolution of the universe, and improve our understanding of dark energy – the mysterious force accelerating cosmic expansion.

— The work is the result of a broad community effort, launched at a workshop at the International Space Science Institute (ISSI) in Bern, Switzerland in March 2025.

— For nearly a century, astronomers have relied on the so-called “distance ladder” to measure the expansion rate of the Universe. This traditional method is a sequence of interlocking steps where nearby distance tracers are connected to very distant cosmic objects. This method has delivered tremendous progress, but relies on a chain of measurements. If one link has hidden errors, it can affect the final value of the Hubble constant.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

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