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Are you preparing for UPSC CSE Prelims 2026? Find a question on the Hubble Space Telescope in today's quiz. (Photo: NASA Science website)
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Science and Technology to check your progress.
🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for January 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨
With reference to the different techniques of capturing carbon, consider the following statements:
1. In post-combustion, using a chemical solvent, CO2 is separated from the exhaust or ‘flue’ gases and then captured.
2. Pre-combustion generates hydrogen, which is separated and can be used as fuel.
3. In oxyfuel combustion, the fossil fuel is burnt in the absence of oxygen, which produces CO2 and water vapour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Relevance: Carbon capture techniques are critical to reaching climate goals and net-zero targets. UPSC frequently assesses conceptual clarity between similar-sounding processes such as post-combustion, pre-combustion, and oxy-fuel combustion. The question assesses understanding of energy transition technologies, which are regularly in the news due to CCUS policy and climate negotiations.
Explanation
— In her Budget speech, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman proposed an outlay of Rs 20,000 crore over the next five years in Carbon Capture Utilisation and Storage (CCUS) technologies.
— CCS involves three different techniques of capturing carbon, including post-combustion, pre-combustion, and oxyfuel combustion.
How CCUS works. (IEA graphic)
— In post-combustion, CO2 is removed after the fossil fuel has been burnt. By using a chemical solvent, CO2 is separated from the exhaust or ‘flue’ gases and then captured. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Pre-combustion involves removing CO2 before burning the fossil fuel. “First, the fossil fuel is partially burned in a ‘gasifier’ to form synthetic gas. CO2 can be captured from this relatively pure exhaust stream,” according to a report by the British Geological Survey. The method also generates hydrogen, which is separated and can be used as fuel. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— In oxyfuel combustion, the fossil fuel is burnt with almost pure oxygen, which produces CO2 and water vapour. The water is condensed through cooling and CO2 is separated and captured. Out of the three methods, oxyfuel combustion is the most efficient but the oxygen burning process needs a lot of energy. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the supercomputer – Athena, consider the following statements:
1. It consists of 512 computing nodes.
2. It is capable of delivering over 20 petaflops.
3. It has been launched by C-DAC and the Department of Science and Technology.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Relevance: Athena’s specifications reflect global advances in high-performance computing, which is essential for scientific research and space exploration. Understanding node count and petaflops helps distinguish performance scales in supercomputers—a recurring Prelims theme.
Explanation
— As Nasa prepares for Artemis II, its first crewed mission around the Moon in more than 50 years, the space agency has quietly revealed another milestone critical to the mission’s success. Nasa has unveiled its most powerful supercomputer, named Athena, which is a huge step forward in its ability to handle complex scientific and engineering data. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— Athena was released for operational use by all approved users on January 14, 2026. The supercomputer was launched through the Nasa Advanced Supercomputing facility.
— Athena consists of 1,024 computing nodes, with each node equipped with two 128-core AMD EPYC ‘Turin’ processors. That’s a total of 256 physical cores per node and over 2,64,000 total cores in the system. At peak performance, Athena is capable of delivering over 20 petaflops, which means it can perform more than 20 quadrillion calculations per second. The new supercomputer is named after a figure from Greek mythology, and the name was chosen through an internal Nasa contest that took place last year. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Acclimatisation is essential at high altitudes primarily because:
(a) air pressure and oxygen availability decrease
(b) Only temperature drops, which sharply affect metabolism
(c) UV radiation increases exponentially
(d) Carbon dioxide concentration rises in the atmosphere
Relevance: UPSC frequently tests basic concepts like the air pressure–oxygen relationship in mountains and climate-related topics. Such fundamentals are also relevant for disaster management and high-altitude habitation issues.
Explanation
— Standing at 22,841 feet in Argentina’s Andes range, Mt. Aconcagua is the highest peak in South America and the tallest mountain outside of Asia. Though lower than Everest, Mt Aconcagua has a success rate of only about 30 per cent. During winter, temperatures plunge below zero degrees, wind speed reaches above 100 kmph, and high altitude presents constant challenges.
— Acclimatisation is important as air pressure and oxygen levels drop significantly at higher altitudes.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Hubble Space Telescope, consider the following statements:
1. It is a project of international cooperation between NASA and ESA.
2. The telescope captured some colourful patterns of gases in a black hole powered galaxy known as the ‘Circinus Galaxy’.
3. It is the second major optical telescope after the James Webb Telescope.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Relevance: Space telescopes, such as Hubble, continue to make headlines due to latest astronomical findings, making them high-yield current affairs issues. UPSC frequently tests institutional collaboration and the timeline of space missions.
Explanation
— Astronomers are using Artificial Intelligence to discover thousands of unusual and ignored objects concealed in years of space telescope data. By using AI to scan images from the Hubble Space Telescope, researchers have identified around 1,400 “anomalous objects”, cosmic oddities that don’t neatly fit into known categories.
— The Hubble Space Telescope has been operating for over three decades and continues to make ground-breaking discoveries that shape our fundamental understanding of the universe. Hubble is a project of international cooperation between NASA and ESA. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The observatory is the first major optical telescope to be placed in space and has made groundbreaking discoveries in the field of astronomy since its launch. According to NASA’s official website, the launch and deployment of Hubble in April 1990 is said to be the “most significant advance in astronomy since Galileo’s telescope.”
— The telescope, on January 26, 2016, captured the disintegration of an ancient comet 332P/Ikeya-Murakami while it was approaching the sun. It was one of the clearest views of a breaking icy comet.
— On February 15, 1998, this was an astounding capture as the telescope snapped the collusion of two dwarf galaxies one of which is I Zwicky 18 with another one on its upper right. This led to the formation of a new star.
— In 1999, the Hubble captured some colourful patterns of gases in a black hole powered galaxy known as the ‘Circinus Galaxy’. These gases depicted a cauldron of vapours, concentrated in two disks of the galaxy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— Hubble was launched in 1990, while the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) in 2021. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: science.nasa.gov)
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Vitamin D works best when paired with another crucial nutrient: calcium.
Statement 2: Without enough calcium, vitamin D alone cannot improve bone strength or prevent bone loss.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.
Relevance: Nutrition and micronutrients are reoccurring issues in UPSC due to their connections to public health and human physiology. These assertion-reason questions assess conceptual understanding rather than rote facts. Vitamin-mineral interactions are particularly important in the setting of malnutrition and lifestyle illnesses in India.
Explanation
— Vitamin D works best when paired with another crucial nutrient: calcium. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Vitamin D is prescribed with calcium as it helps the body absorb calcium effectively. Without enough calcium, vitamin D alone cannot improve bone strength or prevent bone loss. They are often prescribed together for patients. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— In simple terms, Vitamin D acts like a helper — it supports the absorption of calcium in the body. But if there isn’t enough calcium available, there’s nothing for Vitamin D to help absorb in the first place.
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 143)
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Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 147)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 147)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 147)
Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 147)
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