© IE Online Media Services Pvt Ltd
Are you preparing for UPSC CSE Prelims 2026? Find a question on Autonomous District Councils in today's quiz. (Facebook: Conrad Sangma)
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.
🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for March 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨
With reference to the report, titled ‘Purple Sabha: State of Disability in Parliament’, consider the following statements:
1. The report tracked and analysed every disability-related question raised in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
2. The report was prepared by the Niti Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Relevance: Reports on disability and inclusion are important for understanding social justice themes linked to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. UPSC can ask about recent reports, their themes, and associated organizations in current affairs.
Explanation:
— India’s parliamentarians raised 170 disability-related questions across three sessions in 2025, but of the 208 MPs who engaged with the issue, 76 per cent did so only once, with an overwhelming focus on rehabilitation and social protection. These were the findings of a first-of-its-kind report, titled ‘Purple Sabha: State of Disability in Parliament’.
— The novel report tracked and analysed every disability-related question raised in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha across the Budget, Monsoon and Winter sessions in 2025. It found that 208 MPs from 23 states asked 170 questions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The report was prepared by the Politics and Disability Forum, a New Delhi-based research and advocacy organisation working at the intersection of political rights and disability policy. It was produced in partnership with the Centre for Parliamentary Studies at the National Law Institute University (NLIU), Bhopal. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— An analysis of the questions showed that the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) received 60 per cent of all questions. The report flagged this as a narrow imagination of disability as a welfare problem, rather than a rights framework. MoSJE is the nodal ministry which oversees and supervises the implementation of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, through its Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), consider the following statements:
1. The administration of ADCs are managed by the elected members.
2. The ADCs can make laws, rules and regulations concerning land, forests and other matters.
3. ADCs receive funding only from the Central government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Relevance: Autonomous governance under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is a key Polity topic linked to tribal administration and federalism. UPSC can test powers, functions, and funding sources of constitutional bodies and local institutions.
Explanation:
— The Garo Hills Autonomous District Council (GHADC) Monday passed an amendment to the existing rules on qualifications necessary for membership to the council to make it necessary for candidates to have a Scheduled Tribe certificate, Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad Sangma announced.
— The administration of the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) is managed by the elected members, with some being nominated by the Governor for a term of 5 years. These councils have specific powers related to the areas of Tribal Affairs and Hills, including the ability to make laws, rules and regulations concerning land, forests and other matters. The Autonomous District Councils receive funding from the State government and the Central grants. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: dtahills.mn.gov.in)
The Election Commission of India administers elections to the:
1. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
2. State Legislative Councils
3. Offices of the President and Vice President
4. Mayor of a Municipal Corporation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Relevance: The role and jurisdiction of the Election Commission of India is a core Polity topic frequently tested in Prelims. Questions often focus on which elections are conducted by constitutional vs statutory bodies, especially distinctions with State Election Commissions.
Explanation:
— The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
— The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
— Originally, the commission only had one Chief Election Commissioner. It now consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. For the first time, two extra Commissioners were appointed on October 16, 1989, however their term was brief, lasting just until January 1, 1990. Later, on October 1, 1993, two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. Since then, the concept of a multi-member Commission has been in place, with decision-making authority delegated to a majority vote.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(Source: http://www.eci.gov.in)
Which of the Articles of the Constitution mandates that trade and commerce across India shall be free?
(a) Article 301
(b) Article 302
(c) Article 19(g)
(d) Article 305
Relevance: Constitutional provisions on inter-State trade and commerce are crucial for understanding India’s economic integration and federal structure. UPSC Prelims can test exact Article–provision mapping within the Economic Polity section. These Articles are often in news due to issues like GST, state restrictions, and internal market barriers.
Explanation:
— Article 301 of the Constitution mandates that trade and commerce across India shall be free. However, the judiciary has historically allowed states to charge regulatory fees for monitoring environmental impact and infrastructure maintenance.
— Digital permits have become a standard tool to curb mining syndicates. Uttar Pradesh operates the “e-Ravanna” portal, and Jharkhand uses the JIMMS platform for e-permits. Rajasthan has similarly issued millions of e-transit passes since 2019. Bihar is now trying to catch up by replacing an opaque, unregulated flow with a formal digital registry.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. A child can be placed for adoption before they have been declared “legally free” for the process.
2. If biological parents surrender a child, the law gives them a mandatory six-month window to reconsider.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Relevance: Adoption procedures under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 are frequently in news due to child rights debates and reforms. Questions test precise legal provisions, timelines, and institutional mechanisms—common UPSC focus areas.
Explanation:
— Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and the adoption regulations framed by the Central Adoption Resource Authority, a child cannot be placed for adoption until they have been declared “legally free” for the process. That declaration itself takes time, something that the law had not accounted for. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— If biological parents surrender a child, the law gives them a mandatory two-month window to reconsider. For orphaned or abandoned children below the age of two, authorities must spend at least two months tracing biological parents before any adoption proceedings can begin. Only after these periods expire can the legal process formally begin, and even then, additional steps such as including a child study report, a medical examination report and a referral to prospective parents are needed. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 150)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 154)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 154)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 154)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 154)
Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 154)
Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.
Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.