UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on passive euthanasia, Competition Commission of India and more (Week 154)

Statement 2: In India, this directly attracts criminal liability and may amount to culpable homicide under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Relevance: Assisted dying and euthanasia are frequently in news due to ethical debates and court judgments. UPSC may test concepts of criminal liability, consent, and end-of-life care.

Explanation:

— The Supreme Court on Wednesday (March 11), in a first application of its passive euthanasia framework, allowed the withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment for 32-year-old Harish Rana, who has been in a persistent vegetative state for over 13 years after suffering head injuries from a fall in 2013.

— A bench comprising Justices J B Pardiwala and K V Vishwanathan directed that “the medical treatment, including Clinically Assisted Nutrition being administered to the applicant, shall be withdrawn and withheld”. The court noted that medical reports showed no change in his condition over the years, and both the primary and secondary medical boards that it had constituted in 2025, along with Rana’s parents, agreed that the treatment should be stopped.

— Assisted dying involves intentionally causing death through the administration of a lethal injection. In India, this directly attracts criminal liability and may amount to culpable homicide under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. When a doctor assists the patient in performing the act, criminal liability arises for abetment to suicide. Attempted suicide continues to be an offence, even though the Supreme Court has repeatedly observed that a person attempting suicide requires care, not punishment. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Competition Commission of India (CCI), consider the following statements:

1. The Competition Commission of India is functional with a Chairperson and two members.

2. It was established in accordance with the provisions of the amendment in the Competition Act, 2002.

3.The CCI has the powers of a civil court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Relevance: Competition Commission of India is an important statutory body frequently in news due to actions against big tech and market regulation. It is also linked to broader themes of competition law, anti-trust regulation, and economic governance.

Explanation:

— The Competition Commission of India (CCI) closed an antitrust case against Big Tree Entertainment Pvt. Ltd., the parent company of the movie ticketing platform BookMyShow. The case, initiated by a rival ticketing portal, accused BookMyShow of abusing its dominant market position to stifle competition and lock out new players.

— The Competition Act, 2002 was passed by the Parliament in the year 2002, to which the President accorded assent in January, 2003. It was subsequently amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007.

— In accordance with the provisions of the Amendment Act, the Competition Commission of India and the Competition Appellate Tribunal have been established. The Competition Commission of India is now fully functional with a Chairperson and six members. The provisions of the Competition Act relating to anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position were notified on May 20, 2009. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is vested with powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.cci.gov.in)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:

1. The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions.

2. The provisions of the Sixth Schedule shall apply to the administration of the tribal areas in the States of Assam only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: Sixth Schedule is a core constitutional topic frequently asked in Prelims under Polity. It is also important in the context of tribal governance, autonomy, and recent demands for inclusion/exclusion of areas. Questions often test the distinction between Fifth and Sixth Schedule areas and their applicability across states.

Explanation:

— Climate activist and education reformer Sonam Wangchuk on Monday struck a notably conciliatory tone on Ladakh’s political demands, signalling openness to a “give and take” approach with the Centre and stressing the need for a “win-win” outcome, even as key regional bodies have maintained that their core demands remain non-negotiable.

— There has been demand for statehood and the Sixth Schedule for Ladakh. The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions — Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — that have some legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy within a state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— ADCs have up to 30 members with a term of five years, and can make laws, rules and regulations with regard to land, forest, water, agriculture, village councils, health, sanitation, village- and town-level policing, inheritance, marriage and divorce, social customs and mining, etc. The Bodoland Territorial Council in Assam is an exception with more than 40 members and the right to make laws on 39 issues.

— The Sixth Schedule applies to the Northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram (three Councils each), and Tripura (one Council). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), consider the following statements:

1. The constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.

2. These are justiciable.

3. The UCC is part of fundamental rights under Part III of the Indian Constitution.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: Uniform Civil Code is a frequently debated constitutional issue, making it highly relevant for current affairs-based questions. Uniform Civil Code is a frequently debated constitutional issue, making it highly relevant for current affairs-based questions.

Explanation:

— Calling Uniform Civil Code (UCC) “the most effective answer”, Chief Justice of India (CJI) Surya Kant, along with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and R Mahadevan, heard a challenge to the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937. The petition calls for the extension of Uttarakhand’s UCC nationally, stating that “the Uniform Civil Code of Uttarakhand, 2024, has rendered the continuing application of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, elsewhere arbitrary, irrational and discriminatory as far as inheritance is covered”.

What is a Uniform Civil Code?

— A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc. Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Article 44 is one of the directive principles (part IV of the Indian Constitution). These, as defined in Article 37, are not justiciable (not enforceable by any court) but the principles laid down therein are fundamental in governance. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

The Ministry of Education (MoE) introduced the PRAGYATA Guidelines, which aim to ensure:

(a) compulsory adoption of fully online education across all levels of schooling in India

(b) replacement of classroom teaching with digital platforms as the primary mode of instruction

(c) uniform curriculum delivery through centralized digital content without flexibility for states

(d) the safety and academic welfare of students by recommending age- appropriate screen time limits.

Relevance: PRAGYATA Guidelines reflect the government’s approach to digital education and online learning framework. Questions can test awareness of policy initiatives by the Ministry of Education, especially those introduced during the COVID-19 phase.

Explanation:

— As concerns grow over children’s use of social media and the risks accompanying it — exposure to harmful content, online grooming, cybercrime — India is finding itself relying on a patchwork of laws, regulatory frameworks and platform-led interventions to safeguard them.

— India has developed a framework of regulatory measures, self-regulatory codes, and educational initiatives, though critics argue that enforcement can be lax.

— Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, companies that collect the data of children – users under the age of 18 – must get their parent/ guardian’s consent. They also cannot track, monitor a child’s behaviour, or serve targeted ads directed to children. But it is widely believed that children would be able to get around this by simply misrepresenting their age.

— According to a report prepared by the think tank Indian Governance and Policy Project in November 2025, the Information Technology Act, 2000, has provisions which criminalises the creation of child sexual abuse material, the POCSO Act, 2012, defines and penalises online sexual exploitation and grooming, the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 extends liability to digital/online offences against children including trafficking and harassment, and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 addresses online facilitation of child exploitation.

— Under the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, platforms like Netflix, Disney+ Hotstar, Apple TV etc. need to classify the content they host into five age based categories – U (Universal), U/A 7+, U/A 13+, U/A 16+, and A (Adult). These platforms are required to implement parental locks for content classified as U/A 13+ or higher, and reliable age verification mechanisms for content classified as “A”.

— The Ministry of Education (MoE) introduced the PRAGYATA Guidelines on July 14, 2020, which aim to ensure the safety and academic welfare of students by recommending age- appropriate screen time limits.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Topic: War in the Middle East – Where is it headed, and what happens now

What is the endgame?

Is US & Israel justified in attacking Iran?

What is happening inside Iran?

What will be new Supreme Leader Mojtaba Khameini’s strategy?

How does west Asia view the war?

How is India’s position on the war perceived by different nations?

How far is it going to impact India’s economy and its diaspora in the region?

Join us in the next edition of Explained.Live with Navdeep Suri, Former Indian Ambassador to UAE & Egypt in conversation with Shubhajit Roy, Diplomatic Editor, The Indian Express

Register now: https://zoom.us/webinar/register/9017733199890/WN_GLNpxRb6SqyjNrW4Ut81Mg

March 19, 2026 | 5:30 PM | Zoom

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 149)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 153)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 153)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 153)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 153)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 153)

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