UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on resolution to impeach the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, council of ministers and more (Week 153)

3. The Speaker presides over proceedings while it is under consideration.

4. The speaker can vote in the Lok Sabha when the impeachment motion is under consideration.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Relevance: The procedure for removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is rooted in provisions of the Constitution of India, making it important for questions on constitutional offices and parliamentary procedures in UPSC Prelims. Questions on parliamentary offices, their powers, removal procedures, and voting rights are frequently asked to test understanding of legislative functioning.

Explanation:

— Indian politics reached a new flashpoint this week as a Congress-led coalition of 118 MPs signed a no-confidence motion against Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, alleging partisan conduct.

— The procedure is rooted in Article 94 of the Constitution. Under the Constitution, the Speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, provided that at least 14 days’ prior notice of the intention to move the resolution is given. That’s not a simple majority — it’s an effective majority, meaning more than 50% of the House’s full strength, regardless of vacancies or absentees. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

How does impeachment of Lok Sabha Speaker work?

— First of all, for the notice to be admitted in Parliament, it must be signed by at least 50 Members of Parliament. Once submitted, the Secretary General examines its admissibility. After the mandatory 14-day window, the motion may be taken up — and crucially, the Speaker does not preside over proceedings while it is under consideration. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Under Article 96, the chair is handed to another presiding officer during the debate, who is a member of the Chairperson’s panel.

— Article 96 also gives the Speaker the right to defend himself or herself in the House. Thus, Birla can speak and vote in Lok Sabha — but cannot preside over the proceedings. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the ‘Right to be Forgotten’, consider the following statements:

1. It allows individuals to request the removal of irrelevant, outdated, or false personal information from search engines and public domains.

2. This is a legal concept originating in US data protection laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The Right to be Forgotten has been increasingly discussed in India in the context of privacy and digital data protection. It is relevant to India’s evolving data governance framework, particularly under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023. UPSC in Prelims can test concepts related to emerging digital rights, data protection laws, and global regulatory frameworks.

Explanation:

— The Karnataka High Court issued a notice to the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Google India, and two Sri Lankan news portals on Thursday (March 5) in a petition filed last year. According to his petition, before being elevated to the bench of the Sri Lankan Supreme Court, Justice Nawaz served as a Deputy Solicitor General in the Sri Lankan Attorney General’s office.

— To seek the removal of these articles and their search engine hyperlinks, Justice Nawaz has invoked the ‘right to be forgotten’.

— This is a legal concept originating in European data protection laws and gradually gaining recognition in Indian courts, which allows individuals to request the removal of irrelevant, outdated, or false personal information from search engines and public domains. The underlying principle is that a person should not be permanently stigmatised by past events, especially when allegations have been legally disproved. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

In India, which of the following states have passed laws regulating religious conversion?

1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Gujarat

3. Haryana

4. Punjab

5. Kerala

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Relevance: These laws relate to constitutional provisions like Article 25 of the Constitution of India, which guarantees freedom of religion subject to public order, morality, and health. UPSC can test knowledge of state-specific legislations and their constitutional context, especially on sensitive governance and rights-based issues.

Explanation:

— The Maharashtra Cabinet cleared the Dharma Swatantrya Adhiniyam, 2026, a Bill proposing rigorous imprisonment of up to seven years and a fine of Rs 5 lakh for unlawful religious conversions.

— Since 2017, nine states have passed laws regulating religious conversion — Jharkhand (2017), Uttarakhand (2018), Himachal Pradesh (2019), Uttar Pradesh (2020), Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh (2021), Haryana and Karnataka (2022), and Rajasthan (2025).

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The Legislature of a State may by law —

1. impose on goods imported from other States

2. impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The provisions related to restrictions on inter-state trade and taxation by states arise from Article 304 of the Constitution of India, which is part of the constitutional framework governing freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse. These issues are frequently discussed in the context of fiscal federalism and GST-era taxation, where states balance revenue needs with the principle of a common market.

Explanation:

— The Legislature of a State may by law —

(a) impose on goods imported from other States [or the Union territories] any tax to which similar goods manufactured or produced in that State are subject, so, however, as not to discriminate between goods so imported and goods so manufactured or produced; and Hence, statement 1 is correct.

(b) impose such reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse with or within that State as may be required in the public interest. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements is not correct about the council of ministers?

(a) The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

(b) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the President of India.

(c) The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent. of the total number of members of the House of the People.

(d) Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President administers to him the oaths of office.

Relevance: Provisions regarding the Council of Ministers of India are laid down in Article 74 and Article 75 of the Constitution of India, making them core areas of Indian Polity frequently tested in UPSC Prelims. UPSC can frame questions on the structure, powers, and constitutional limitations of the executive, especially the relationship between the President, Prime Minister, and Council of Ministers.

Explanation:

— The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

— The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent. of the total number of members of the House of the People.

— The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

— The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

— Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 148)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 152)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 152)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 151)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 152)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 152)

Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.

Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.