UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on North-Eastern Council, Comptroller and Auditor-General and more (Week 152)

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Relevance: UPSC frequently asks assertion–reason or statement-based questions on constitutional amendments and their enabling legislation. It also connects with DPSPs and welfare governance, making it important for eliminating tricky options in Polity questions.

Explanation

— The Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court ruled last week that a 13-year-old school student could not be expelled for non-payment of fees, especially since the child fell within the age limits of compulsory education.

— A bench comprising Justices Anil Kilor and Raj Wakode quashed the transfer certificate (TC) issued by the private school after the Class 7 student failed to pay Rs 23,900 in fees. The court also directed that the student be promptly readmitted.

— Article 21-A of the Constitution guarantees free and compulsory education to children between the ages of 6 and 14. This guarantee is realised by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act). Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Section 3(1) of the act provides that every child in this age group “shall have the right to free and compulsory education in a neighbourhood school till the completion of his or her elementary education.”

— Section 16 further stipulates that “No child admitted in a school shall be held back in any class or expelled from school till the completion of elementary education.”

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the North-Eastern Council, consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory advisory body that plays a role in development planning, and region-level policy making.

2. Sikkim is not a part of the North-Eastern Council.

3. It started functioning in the year 2001.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The North Eastern Council is frequently in news due to infrastructure funding, border development, and regional integration in Northeast India. It links Polity with Geography and Internal Security, making it a favourite area for statement-based Prelims questions.

Explanation

— On December 30, 1971, two laws — the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act and the North-Eastern Council Act — were enacted by Parliament.

— Northeast India officially comprises eights states — Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura — which are a part of the North-Eastern Council, a statutory advisory body that plays a role in development planning, and region-level policy making. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Pre-Independence, five of these eight present-day states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram) were a part of colonial Assam. Manipur and Tripura were princely states, with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam.

— Sikkim, the most unique of the eight, was juridically independent but under British paramountcy. It became an independent country in 1947, before being annexed by India in 1975. In 2001 Sikkim was made a member of the North Eastern Council, and thus officially a part of the Northeast.

— The NEC started functioning in 1972. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The members of the NEC consists of the Governors and the Chief Ministers of the eight member States including Sikkim, apart from the Chairman and three Members who are nominated by the President of India.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: tcp.assam.gov.in)

QUESTION 3

Which of the changes in the Constitution took place during the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. Amendment of Article 105

2. Insertion of new article 39A

3. Insertion of new article 43A

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Relevance: The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 is known as the “Mini-Constitution” due to the vast structural changes it introduced. UPSC frequently asks factual questions on amendments involving DPSPs, Fundamental Duties, Preamble changes, and Parliament’s powers.

Explanation

— There were following changes in the Constitution that took place during the 42nd Constitutional Amendment: Amendment of the Preamble, Amendment of the Seventh Schedule, Amendment of Article 105, Insertion of new article 31D, Amendment of article 31C, Insertion of new article 39A, Insertion of new article 43A, Special provisions as to pending petitions under article 226, Power of the President to remove difficulties and more.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in)

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG), which of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. The salary and other conditions of service of the CAG are specified in the Second Schedule.

2. The CAG shall be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State.

3. The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

4. The reports of the CAG of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the President.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Relevance: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a key constitutional authority ensuring financial accountability of the executive. It is important for understanding the Centre–State financial relations and parliamentary control over public finances.

Explanation

— Low beneficiary coverage, delays in hospital empanelment and claims, fund under-utilisation, and incomplete rural houses despite high reported completion rates are among the shortcomings flagged by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in Bihar’s implementation of the Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY).

About Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India

— There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

— The salary and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall be such as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until they are so determined, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General, including all salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of persons serving in that office, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the change of name for a State or Union Territories?

(a) Article 1

(b) Article 2

(c) Article 3

(d) Article 4

Relevance: UPSC often frames statement-based questions on Parliament’s powers to alter area, boundaries, and names of States. It is important for understanding Centre–State relations and the flexible nature of Indian federalism.

Explanation

— The Assembly passed resolutions in 2023 and 2024 urging the Union government to amend the Constitution and change the state’s name from Kerala to Keralam.

— The 2024 resolution stated that the name of the state in Malayalam is Keralam and that states were reorganised on linguistic lines on November 1, 1956, which is observed as Kerala Piravi (Kerala Formation Day). It noted that while the state is referred to as Keralam in Malayalam, its name in the First Schedule of the Constitution is Kerala.

— The Assembly unanimously requested the Union government to take immediate steps under Article 3 of the Constitution to change the name to Keralam.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 147)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 151)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 151)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 151)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 151)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 151)

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