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Are you preparing for UPSC CSE Prelims 2026? Find a question on the Privileges Committee in today's quiz. (File Image)
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.
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Which of the following acts comes under the purview of the power of the Enforcement Directorate (ED)?
1. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
3. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
4. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Relevance: The Enforcement Directorate is frequently in news due to investigations involving economic offences, money laundering, and high-profile cases. Understanding the legal framework of agencies like ED helps in solving polity–governance–economy interlinked Prelims questions.
Explanation
— The Directorate of Enforcement is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of offence of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws. The statutory functions of the Directorate include enforcement of following Acts:
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA)
Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA)
Under the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA), this Directorate is empowered to sponsor cases of preventive detention with regard to contraventions of FEMA.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: http://www.enforcementdirectorate.gov.in)
With reference to the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, consider the following statements:
1. The Act was enacted by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government.
2. The Act prohibits the conversion of any place of worship from one religion or sect to another.
3. The Act has frozen the status of all religious places as they existed on August 15, 1947.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Relevance: UPSC often asks about the year of enactment, objectives, and key provisions of important socio-religious legislations. The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 is frequently in news due to constitutional challenges and debates over secularism.
Explanation
— A three-judge bench of the Supreme Court, led by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, heard a batch of petitions, pending since 2020, challenging the constitutional validity of the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991.
— The 1991 Act was enacted by the P V Narasimha Rao government in September 1991, during the peak of the Ram Janmabhoomi movement. It freezes the status of all religious places as they existed on August 15, 1947. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
— Section 3 of the Act prohibits the conversion of any place of worship from one religion or sect to another. Section 4 mandates that its religious character shall remain exactly as it was on Independence Day. Section 4(2) abated all pending legal proceedings regarding disputes over converting a place of worship, and bars courts from entertaining any fresh suits. The only exception carved out was for the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid dispute in Ayodhya. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. The validity of any proceedings in Parliament can be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
2. Discussion can take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Relevance: Questions testing limits on judicial review and restrictions on discussion of judges frequently appear in Prelims. The topic links constitutional provisions with separation of powers and current debates on Parliament–Judiciary relations.
Explanation
— Article 121 of the Constitution provides for the restriction on discussion in Parliament.
— No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge as hereinafter provided. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— Article 122 says “Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament”.
— The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. No officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under this Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Source: Constitution of India)
With reference to the Article 19 of the Constitution of India, consider the following pairs:
1. 19(a) – freedom of speech and expression
2. 19(b) – form associations or unions
3. 19(g) – reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
4. 19(d) – move freely throughout the territory of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Relevance: Article 19 is a core Fundamental Rights topic repeatedly asked in UPSC Prelims. It also links to current affairs involving free speech, protests, associations, and professional freedoms.
Explanation
— Article 19 of the Constitution of India provides for the Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
— All citizens shall have the right—
(a) to freedom of speech and expression;
(b) to assemble peaceably and without arms;
(c) to form associations or unions [or co-operative societies];
(d) to move freely throughout the territory of India;
(e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
(f) removed
(g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(Source: Constitution of India)
With reference to the Privileges Committee, consider the following statements:
1. The Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker.
2. The recommendations of the Privileges Committee are binding on the House and do not require approval.
3. The Chairperson of the Privileges Committee in the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Committee from among themselves.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Relevance: Issues of breach of privilege frequently appear in news, making the topic relevant from a current affairs perspective. UPSC often tests the composition, powers, and functioning of Parliamentary Committees in Prelims.
Explanation
— Each House of Parliament and its Committees collectively and members of each House individually enjoy certain rights, privileges and immunities without which they cannot perform their functions efficiently and effectively.
— This Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Its role is to investigate any question involving a breach of privilege of the House or any of its Committees presented to it by the House or the Speaker.
— The Privileges Committee solely investigates breaches of privilege and reports to the House. Its recommendations are non-binding. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— In the Lok Sabha, the Chairperson of the Privileges Committee is nominated by the Speaker rather than chosen by the Committee members. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: sansad.in)
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