UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on no-confidence motion, Sahyog Portal and more (Week 149)

2. The process is governed by the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

3. Till now, no motion of no-confidence has not been submitted.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The question tests procedural knowledge of no-confidence motion under Lok Sabha Rules. It is a frequently asked area due to current political developments and parliamentary practice.

Explanation

— The deadlock in Lok Sabha over allowing Leader of Opposition Rahul Gandhi to speak took another turn, as Opposition parties submitted a notice for a no-confidence resolution against Speaker Om Birla. However, the Opposition’s decision to participate in the Budget discussion beginning this afternoon has kept alive the possibility of the House returning to normal business.

— According to Article 94, a Member of the House who holds office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People shall vacate office if, as per 94 (a), they cease “to be a member of the House of the People”, according to 94 (b), may at any time “by writing under his hand addressed” resign office and, per 94 (c), be removed “by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House”.

— The motion of no-confidence has been submitted thrice in the past in the years 1954, 1966 and 1987. Such a motion requires to be backed by at least two Members of the House of the People, or the Lok Sabha and “50 members have to stand up” in its favour, that is, the quorum of the House has to be fulfilled for the procedure to take place. The process is governed by Rules 200 to 203 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

— In 1954, Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, was the first presiding officer to face a no-confidence motion in December, 1954. There were two more – against Hukam Singh in November 1966 and Balram Jakhar in April 1987. None of them lost the Speaker chair because of the motion.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

2. Any other Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the President of India.

3. The CEC and election commissioners are appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation from a three-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition (LoP), and one member of the Union Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Relevance: This question tests understanding of Article 324 and constitutional safeguards for the independence of the Election Commission. It also covers recent changes in appointment procedure under the Election Commissioners Act, 2023.

Explanation

— The TMC is considering moving an impeachment motion in Parliament against Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar.

— The ECI is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution and the CEC and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 lay down provisions regarding the appointment, tenure, and removal of the CEC.

— The CEC and election commissioners are appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation from a three-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition (LoP), and one member of the Union Cabinet. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Article 324(5) of the Constitution states that the CEC can be removed from office only “in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.” This framing can also be found in Section 11(2) of the 2023 Act. The article further states that “any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner”. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the adjournment motion, consider the following statements:

1. The adjournment motion started its journey in India under the rules of the pre-independent bicameral legislature established under the Government of India Act of 1935.

2. The Rajya Sabha Rule Book does not provide for an adjournment motion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question tests knowledge of parliamentary devices and their House-specific applicability. It helps distinguish procedures of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, a frequent UPSC trap.

Explanation

— Lok Sabha continued to see disruption during the Budget Session of Parliament with the House adjourned twice.

— The adjournment motion is a form of censure of the government. It originated in the House of Commons in the United Kingdom, and started its journey in India under the rules of the pre-independent bicameral legislature established under the Government of India Act of 1919. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Rajya Sabha Rule Book does not provide for an adjournment motion. Over the years, Rajya Sabha MPs have used Rule 267 to suspend Question Hour in the House to raise urgent matters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— This rule stated, “Any member may, with the consent of the Chairman, move that any rule may be suspended in its application to a particular motion before the Council and if the motion is carried the rule in question shall be suspended for the time being.”

Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The Sahyog Portal was launched to:

(a) expedite the blocking of “objectionable content” online under the IT Act, 2000.

(b) provide a grievance redressal mechanism for users against social media intermediaries.

(c) enable real-time surveillance of encrypted communication platforms by security agencies.

(d) regulate digital advertisements and political content during elections.

Relevance: The question tests awareness of new digital governance initiatives by the Government of India. It integrates IT Act, 2000 with issues of online content regulation.

Explanation

— Stand-up comedian Kunal Kamra and senior advocate Haresh Jagtiani moved the Bombay High Court, challenging the contentious Sahyog Portal — which has rapidly become a central tool in India’s expanding online censorship framework.

— The Sahyog Portal, developed by the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs, was launched in 2024 to expedite the blocking of “objectionable content” online under the IT Act, 2000.

— The website was to bring all authorised agencies and intermediaries onto a single platform, enabling and automating immediate action against unlawful online content.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Public Service Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of that state shall appoint the Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission.

2. In the case of the Joint Commission, the Chairman and other members are appointed by the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: This question tests the constitutional knowledge regarding the appointment authorities of the Public Service Commissions. It is also important for distinguishing roles of the President and Governor in constitutional bodies.

Explanation

— The Chairman and other members of a Public Service Commission shall be appointed, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, by the President, and in the case of a State Commission, by the Governor of the State. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— A member of a Public Service Commission shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains, in the case of the Union Commission, the age of sixty-five years, and in the case of a State Commission or a Joint Commission, the age of sixty-two years, whichever is earlier.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 144)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 148)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 148)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 148)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 148)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 148)

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