UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 182): MCQs on Chief Election Commissioner, Electoral Registration Officer, and more

QUESTION 1

With reference to the Electoral Registration Officer, consider the following statements:

1. The responsibility for updating the electoral roll rests with the Electoral Registration Officer.

2. ERONET is intended to aid the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) in the capacity of a “decision support system”.

3. The ERO is an officer at the rank of the sub-divisional magistrate.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The question tests knowledge of the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) and ERONET, an important technology-enabled system for electoral-roll management. It is relevant to Indian Polity — Elections and Electoral Reforms.

Explanation

— The Maharashtra Chief Electoral Officer wrote to the Chief Election Commissioner last week seeking four changes to the ECINET platform, The Indian Express reported on September 29.

— The proposed changes relate to how the state’s Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) can exercise their statutory powers through the platform, as the special intensive revision (SIR) process continues in the state.

— Under Section 21(3) of The Representation of the People Act, 1950, the ECI “may at any time… direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency in such manner as it may think fit”.

— Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, the responsibility for updating the electoral roll rests with the Electoral Registration Officer. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The ERO is typically an officer at the rank of the sub-divisional magistrate who prepares the voters’ list, hears claims and objections and decides which names will stay and which get deleted. Each Assembly seat has one ERO. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The Indian Express investigation revealed that the ERO, who should have the final call on what names enter the electoral roll, was being held back by the software, a concern that Sandhu flagged on August 14. Effectively, they were only able to add or delete a name, reverse a decision or process an appeal, with the ultimate decision resting centrally in New Delhi.

— The Election Commission describes ERONET as a “centralized form processing system” for handling voter registration, migration and deletion. It replaced 36 separate systems and databases used by states to manage their electoral rolls.

— ERONET is intended to aid the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) in the capacity of a “decision support system”, in preparing and revising the electoral roll of an assembly constituency. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) is the statutory authority responsible for preparing and revising the electoral roll of an assembly constituency. Therefore, ERONET cannot unilaterally decide if a person gets on or off the voter list, but can flag duplicate entries corresponding to a voter’s identical demographic details for the ERO’s attention. The ERO may then examine the records and if needed, conduct field verification before taking a decision.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the election to the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. The members of the Rajya Sabha shall be elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

2. The President of India nominates 15 members to the Rajya Sabha.

3. A person to be elected to the Rajya Sabha should have completed at least 35 years of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The question tests factual understanding of the electoral system, nominated members and age qualification for membership of the Rajya Sabha. It is relevant to Indian Polity — Parliament, particularly the composition and election of the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation

— The biennial polls for 11 Rajya Sabha seats – 10 from Uttar Pradesh (UP) and one from Uttarakhand – will be held on October 16, the Election Commission (EC) announced.

— Rajya Sabha is a Permanent House and is not subject to dissolution as per Article 83 (1) of the Constitution of India. But as nearly as possible, one third of its members shall retire every 2nd year and an equal number of members are chosen to replace them.

— Article 80(4) of the Constitution of India provides that members of Rajya Sabha shall be elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The President of India nominates 12 members of Rajya Sabha. Article 80 (3) of the Constitution of India provides that the members to be nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha should have special knowledge or practical experience in matters like literature, science, art and social service. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Article 84 (b) stipulates that a person shall be of not less than 30 (Thirty) years of age. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.eci.gov.in)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The CEC enjoys the same services and monetary benefits extended to justices of the Supreme Court.

2. The CEC can be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as an Attorney General of India.

3. Any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

4. To initiate the removal of the CEC, only the members of the Lok Sabha are required to bring a notice of motion explicitly alleging misbehaviour or incapacity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Relevance: The question is relevant to Indian Polity — Constitutional and Statutory Bodies, particularly the Election Commission of India and safeguards relating to the tenure of its members. It is important for understanding the independence of the Election Commission, including the distinct removal procedures for the CEC and other Election Commissioners.

Explanation

— The ECI is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution and the CEC and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 lay down provisions regarding the appointment, tenure, and removal of the CEC.

— The President appoints the CEC and Election Commissioners upon the recommendation from a three-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition (LoP), and one member of the Union Cabinet. Those appointed should have previously held secretary-level positions in the Government and be “persons of integrity, who have knowledge of and experience in management and conduct of elections,” according to the 2023 Act.

— The appointments are made for a tenure of six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever comes first. The CEC enjoys the same services and monetary benefits extended to justices of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Article 324(5) of the Constitution states that the CEC can be removed from office only “in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.” Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— This framing can also be found in Section 11(2) of the 2023 Act. The article further states that “any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner”. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— To initiate the removal of the CEC, members of both Houses must bring a notice of motion explicitly alleging misbehaviour or incapacity. To be admitted, an impeachment motion needs to be signed by at least 100 MPs in the Lok Sabha and 50 in the Rajya Sabha. They can consult people and materials to refuse or admit the motion. If the motion is admitted, an enquiry is conducted to examine the validity of the charges. This involves forming a committee to investigate evidence of misbehaviour or incapacity. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The motion for removal must secure the support of a majority of the total membership of each House and be passed by a two-thirds majority “present and voting” in both Houses of Parliament. Once passed successfully, the President orders the removal of the CEC.

— There is no discretion once the constitutional requirements are met, since the President acts on the advice of Parliament in this context.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Consider the following statements about the Adjournment Motion:

1. It is a motion for discussing ‘a specific and important matter that should have urgent consideration’.

2. It can be moved only by a minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The topic is important for Indian Polity — Parliamentary devices and procedures, particularly motions used for discussing matters of urgent public importance. The question helps distinguish the Adjournment Motion from other parliamentary motions such as the No-Confidence Motion, Censure Motion and Calling Attention Motion.

Explanation

— An Adjournment Motion is a motion for discussing ‘a specific and important matter that should have urgent consideration’. It can be moved by any member of the House and is like an emergency motion of censure upon the Government. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The object is to draw the attention of the Government to a matter of urgent public importance to criticise the decision of Government in an urgent matter in regard to which a motion or resolution with proper notice will be too late.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: sansad.in)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the formation of a state by separation of territory from any State, consider the following statements:

1. Article 2 of the Constitution of India provides for the formation of a state by separation of territory from any State.

2. The Bill for the formation of a State by separation of territory from any State shall be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question is relevant to Indian Polity — Union and its Territory, particularly the constitutional provisions for the creation and reorganisation of States. It is important for understanding the constitutional procedure for altering State boundaries, areas and names, a recurring area in Prelims.

Explanation

— Uttar Pradesh Minister and Suheldev Bhartiya Samaj Party (SBSP) leader Om Prakash Rajbhar has claimed that the state will be divided into four parts soon, and that the Purvanchal region will get a “Rajbhar Chief Minister”.

— As per Article 3 of the Indian constitution, “Parliament may by law… form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State… provided that no Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in either House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President and unless, where the proposal contained in the Bill affects the area, boundaries or name of any of the States, the Bill has been referred by the President to the Legislature of that State for expressing its views thereon within such period as may be specified in the reference or within such further period as the President may allow and the period so specified or allowed has expired.” Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 165)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 181)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 181)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 181)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 181)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 181)

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