UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 180): MCQs on Hindi Diwas, Autonomous District Councils and more

3. Article 343 designates Hindi as ‘the national language of the Union’.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The question tests the evolution of India’s official language policy, including the Constituent Assembly debates and the constitutional provisions in Part XVII. It is relevant for understanding language policy, constitutional provisions, and the historical debates surrounding the official language of the Union.

Explanation

— On September 14, 1949, after years of debate, the Assembly adopted the language compromise commonly known as the Munshi–Ayyangar formula. Rather than declaring a ‘national language’, it designated Hindi as the ‘official language of the Union’, while English would continue to be used ‘for all official purposes’ for 15 years after the commencement of the Constitution. The date is now commemorated as Hindi Diwas.

— Within the Constituent Assembly, the language of the Union government was one of its most divisive questions. At Independence, most Indians spoke one of roughly a dozen major regional languages, while Hindi was the most widely spoken language. English was the language of colonial administration, even though less than 1 per cent of Indians spoke it.

— The Assembly ultimately approved the Munshi–Ayyangar formula, later incorporated into Articles 343–351 in Part XVII of the Indian Constitution. It was named after KM Munshi and N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, who were part of the seven-member Drafting Committee of the Constitution, with BR Ambedkar as its chairman. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The arrangement envisaged a 15-year transition, during which Hindi could increasingly be used by the Centre. The provincial governments were permitted to choose one of the regional languages or English for the conduct of their internal affairs, while English (unless Parliament would replace it with Hindi) remained the language of inter-provincial communication.

— But when that period ended in 1965, Hindi was still not widely used by the Union government. Following a series of violent riots in non-Hindi-speaking states in the 1960s, Parliament renounced the ideal of an Indian national language. The Official Languages Act of 1963 later stated that English would continue to be upheld as an official language along with Hindi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Article 343 designates Hindi as ‘the official language of the Union’. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), consider the following statements:

1. The Fifth Schedule provides for the Autonomous District Councils.

2. ADCs can make laws, rules and regulations relating to land and mining.

3. The ADCs are present across all the North-Eastern states as well as in Ladakh.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Relevance: The question tests the constitutional framework governing Autonomous District Councils and tribal-area administration in India. It is relevant for understanding tribal self-governance, decentralisation, land and resource management, and the geographical application of constitutional schedules.

Explanation

— The Centre has offered to add a new constitutional provision, Article 371(K), to extend additional protections to Ladakh, The Indian Express learnt after a meeting between the Ministry of Home Affairs and representatives of the Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance.

— The Sixth Schedule, under Article 244 of the Constitution, provides for autonomous administrative divisions called Autonomous District Councils, or ADCs, which enjoy a degree of legislative, judicial and administrative autonomy within a state. ADCs can make laws, rules and regulations relating to subjects such as land, forests, water, agriculture, village councils, health, sanitation, inheritance, social customs and mining. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— The Sixth Schedule currently applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

At which of the following events shall the Governor address the Legislative Assembly?

1. At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly.

2. At the commencement of the first session of each year.

3. At the commencement of the last session of the Legislative Assembly before the end of its five-year term.

4. At the commencement of the first session after every adjournment of the Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4 only

Relevance: The question tests the constitutional provisions governing the Governor’s address to the State Legislature under Article 176. It is relevant for understanding the constitutional powers, functions and relationship between the Governor and State Legislature, a recurring area in Indian Polity.

Explanation

— Article 176 provides for the special address by the Governor.

— At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year, the Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, both Houses assembled together and inform the Legislature of the causes of its summons.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 4

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to practice any profession, occupation, trade, or business?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 19

(c) Article 21

(d) Article 22

Relevance: The question tests knowledge of the Fundamental Rights under Part III. It is relevant for understanding the scope and reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights, a core area of Indian Polity for Prelims.

Explanation

— A Karnataka High Court judge has cast doubt on a nearly 50-year-old ruling that held the card game Andar Bahar to be a game of skill rather than chance and referred the issue to a larger bench for reconsideration.

— The Supreme Court has previously laid down legal principles to distinguish games of skill from games of chance. In State of Bombay v RMD Chamarbaugwala (1957), the court held that competitions where success depends substantially upon skill fall outside the concept of gambling. Such activities are legitimate business activities protected under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to practice any profession, occupation, trade, or business.

— The principle was then applied in State of Andhra Pradesh v K Satyanarayana (1968), where the SC considered the game of rummy. The court acknowledged an element of chance whenever cards are shuffled and dealt, but held that rummy is a game of skill, as it “requires a certain amount of skill because the fall of the cards has to be memorised”.

— In 1996, in Dr K.R Lakshmanan v State of Tamil Nadu, the SC said that a game of skill is one in which success depends on the player’s “superior knowledge, training, attention, experience, and adroitness,” while a game of chance is one in which “chance predominates over skill.” Since most games contain an element of both, the court said it is the “dominant element” that determines a game’s legal character.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the legal capacity of minors to enter into contracts in India, consider the following statements:

‌1. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, permits a minor to enter into a contract if the minor is of sound mind.

2. The Information Technology Act, 2000, gives minors contractual competence for agreements formed electronically.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question tests the distinction between capacity to contract and other requirements for a valid contract, with reference to minors and soundness of mind. The question is relevant for understanding how traditional contract-law principles apply to modern digital transactions, an important intersection of Polity, Governance and emerging technology.

Explanation

— A Supreme Court bench comprising Chief Justice of India Surya Kant issued notice on a PIL arguing that while children below 18 cannot legally enter into contracts, they are allowed to create accounts online independently, which often require agreeing to terms and service policies.

— Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, bars a minor from entering into a contract. It states that, “Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject and who is of sound mind.” Any contract or agreement a minor enters into is treated as void ab initio. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The PIL states that despite this legal position, social media intermediaries and digital platforms operating in India permit children, often from the age of 13 years, to independently create and maintain accounts by merely declaring their age or date of birth.

— The PIL further states that while Section 10A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, recognises contracts formed through electronic means, it does not confer contractual competence on persons otherwise incapable of contracting under Section 11 of the Contract Act. “The technological form of acceptance, including click-wrap acceptance or continued use of a platform, cannot therefore alter the substantive legal capacity of a minor,” the PIL states. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The DPDP Act, 2023 requires parental consent before a child’s personal data is processed. The PIL, however, states that “neither the DPDP Act nor the rules framed thereunder expressly prohibit a person below eighteen years from independently creating or maintaining an account on a digital platform nor does it prescribe a uniform mechanism for preventing such independent enrolment.”

— The PIL says the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, framed under the IT Act, are “conspicuously silent” on a minor’s contractual capacity and do not provide for meaningful age verification, parental authentication or age-gating mechanisms.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 163)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 179)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 179)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 179)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 179)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 179)

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