UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 177): MCQs on features of the Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, simultaneous elections and more

3. The National Security Strategies Conference has been held every year since 2021.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: This question is relevant for UPSC Prelims as it tests awareness of important national security conferences and their institutional affiliations. It also links current affairs with issues of illegal migration, internal security and border management.

Explanation

— Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the ninth two-day National Security Strategies Conference-2026, here to discuss key national security issues, including detection and deportation of illegal migrants, a policy framework to combat cyber crime, and proxy warfare by Pakistan. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

Union Home Minister Amit Shah during the inauguration of the ninth National Security Strategies Conference-2026. (PTI)

— According to a statement by a Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) spokesperson, discussions on the first day focused on key national security issues, including counter-terrorism challenges, fusion, analysis and operationalisation of intelligence through the Multi-Agency Centre (MAC), a vision document on narcotics control, detection and deportation of illegal migrants, a policy framework to combat cyber crime, and proxy warfare by Pakistan.

— “For effective tackling of terrorism and radicalisation, Shah emphasised training for implementation of the MHA’s PRAHAAR scheme, expediting trials by bringing back fugitives and using trial-in-absentia provisions, and adopting a comprehensive and integrated approach while investigating UAPA cases,” the spokesperson said.

— The second day of the conference will focus on the threat landscape from sub-aerial systems and countermeasures, securing the blue economy, information warfare and its implications for national security, and the need for a bio-security framework, the spokesperson highlighted.

— The conference, being held in hybrid format, was attended by more than 850 participants from across the country. Ministers of State for Home Affairs, the Union Home Secretary, Deputy National Security Advisers and heads of Central Armed Police Forces and Central Police Organisations attended the conference in Delhi.

— The National Security Strategies Conference has been held every year since 2021. Its objective is to find solutions to major national security challenges by drawing on the experience of officers working at the grassroots level in collaboration with domain experts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. The changes in the name of the state require an amendment to the First Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. Any change in the name of a State requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.

3. Once the President refers a Bill concerning alteration of a State’s name, area or boundaries to the State Legislature, Parliament must accept the opinion expressed by that Legislature.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: This question is relevant for UPSC Prelims as it tests the constitutional procedure for altering the name, area and boundaries of States under Article 3. The topic is important for understanding Indian federalism, territorial reorganisation and Parliament’s powers over States.

Explanation

— The Rajya Sabha passed a Bill to change the name of Kerala to Keralam, just over two years after the state Assembly passed a unanimous resolution, asking the Centre for the name change.

— The Kerala (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2026, which changes the name of the state to Keralam and makes the necessary amendments to the Constitution, including in the First Schedule, was passed by a voice vote. The Lok Sabha had passed the Bill. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Such a change does not need to be ratified by half of the state legislatures. Parliament can make the change by enacting a statute under Article 3 and following the appropriate procedure. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The views of the concerned state legislature are not binding on Parliament. Parliament can adopt or reject the opinion. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Consider the following:

These two states share a roughly 800-kilometre-long border. Recently, a dispute arose over alleged encroachment by people from one state into the other. The two states have had a long-standing boundary dispute, with several areas along the border remaining contested. A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between the two states in April 2023 to settle their long-pending inter-state boundary dispute, covering 123 disputed border villages.

The above-mentioned states are:

(a) Uttar Pradesh – Bihar

(b) Rajasthan – Madhya Pradesh

(c) Telangana – Andhra Pradesh

(d) Assam – Arunachal Pradesh

Relevance: This question is relevant for UPSC Prelims as it tests knowledge of inter-state boundary disputes and Centre–State relations. The topic is important for understanding federalism, border management and mechanisms for resolving inter-state disputes.

Explanation

— At least 18 Assamese residents were injured in a firing by some unidentified individuals from Arunachal Pradesh along the inter-state border in Assam’s Dhemaji district on Monday (August 10), according to reports. A senior official told PTI the incident took place in the morning at Mingmang Basti along the Assam-Arunachal Pradesh border. It was the fallout of a dispute over alleged encroachment by people from Arunachal Pradesh on land in Assam, the official said.

— The incident has put the spotlight back on the decades-long border dispute between the two states, which share a roughly 800-kilometre-long border. Here’s what lies at the root of the dispute, what efforts have been taken in the past to resolve this issue, and the terms of the 2023 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) that Chief Ministers of both states — Sarma and Arunachal Pradesh’s Pema Khandu — had signed.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following is/are the features of the Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026?

1. For individuals, the imprisonment from five to 10 years, which was earlier three to five years.

2. For individuals, fine upto Rs 20 lakh, which was earlier upto Rs 5 lakh.

3. The Bill gives statutory backing for fast-track courts to be set up to try offences under the Act, which was not there earlier.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Relevance: This question is relevant for UPSC Prelims as it covers recent changes in the legal framework for preventing unfair means in public examinations. It also tests awareness of how legislation can strengthen deterrence and institutional mechanisms against malpractice.

Explanation

— After days of disruptions in both Houses over the NEET paper leak and police action on protesting students on July 20, the Lok Sabha passed the Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 by a voice vote. Rajya Sabha, which took the Bill up for discussion, also cleared it by voice vote.

— Parliament had passed the Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 in 2024 to provide strict punishments for those involved in unfair means, including leaking of question papers, in examinations conducted by the Union Public Service Commission, the Staff Selection Commission, the Railway Recruitment Board, the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection and the National Testing Agency, which conducts the NEET exam. The Act came into effect in June 2024.

Key features of the Bill

Individuals

— 2024 law: Imprisonment of three to five years; fine upto Rs 10 lakh

— New Bill: imprisonment to five to 10 years, fine upto Rs 50 lakh; Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Service providers

— 2024 law: Fine upto Rs 1 crore; ban on being assigned any responsibility relating to a public examination for four years

— New Bill: Fine upto Rs 5 crore; ban on being assigned any responsibility relating to a public examination for eight years

Directors, senior management or persons in-charge of service provider firm found guilty

— 2024 law: Imprisonment of at least three years; fine of Rs 1 crore

— New Bill: Imprisonment of at least five years, fine of Rs 5 crore

Organised crime

— 2024 law: Imprisonment of five to 10 years; fine of Rs 1 crore

— New Bill: Imprisonment of least seven years; fine of Rs 10 crore.

— Apart from enhancing the existing punishments, the Bill also gives statutory backing for fast-track courts to be set up to try offences under the Act. The Bill also mandates a five-month timeline for the investigation and trial of such offences by fast-track courts. The Bill gives the Union government the power to establish a Special Task Force to investigate offences under the Act. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

At present, which of the following Indian states have simultaneous elections with those of the Lok Sabha?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Gujarat

4. Odisha

5. Sikkim

6. Tripura

7. Maharashtra

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3, and 6 only

(b) 4, 5, 6 and 7 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

Relevance: This question tests the concept of simultaneous elections (One Nation, One Election) through the actual electoral cycles of Indian States. It also requires candidates to distinguish between States whose Assembly elections were held alongside the 2024 Lok Sabha elections and those following different electoral cycles.

Explanation

— Even as the Joint Committee of Parliament on the One Nation One Election Bills is engaged in consultations, including interacting with Chief Ministers across states, the NDA is learnt to be exploring advancing the first simultaneous elections from the present timeline of 2034 to 2029 in the 22 states/UTs where it has a majority. To that effect, it is considering the dissolution of the Assemblies before their terms end.

— A source familiar with the discussions said that of the 22 NDA-ruled states/UTs, 11 are due for elections over the coming two years, before the 2029 Lok Sabha elections. Four states have simultaneous elections with that of the Lok Sabha. These are Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Odisha, which are today all ruled by the NDA.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 159)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 176)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 176)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 176)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 176)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 176)

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