UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 174): MCQs on First Information Report, Committee for Metropolitan Planning and more

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: This question tests conceptual understanding of the criminal justice system and the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which has replaced the CrPC. UPSC increasingly asks questions linking current legal developments with foundational legal concepts and constitutional principles.

Explanation

— A First Information Report (FIR) is the first written record of an offence that is received by the police. Its registration sets a criminal investigation in motion under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS). Hence, statement 1 is correct

— There is no legal provision for a government to cancel or revoke that record using an executive order. What can be brought to an end is the case that follows from the FIR. This can happen through three routes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct

Route One: Closure report

— If an investigation does not disclose sufficient material to proceed against the accused, the police may file a closure report before the jurisdictional magistrate under Section 193 of BNSS.

Route Two: Withdrawal from prosecution

— Section 360 of the BNSS states that “the Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may, with the consent of the court, at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any person either generally or in respect of any one or more of the offences for which he is tried.”

Route Three: Court quashes the FIR

— The third route lies within the High Court’s own inherent powers under Section 528 BNSS, which preserves the court’s authority to pass orders “to prevent abuse of the process of any court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice.”

— A person facing prosecution can approach the High Court directly. Courts have cautioned that this power should be used sparingly, particularly when investigation is still underway.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

To read more: How states can withdraw FIRs against students booked during CJP protests

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements regarding Ex-post Facto Environmental Clearance in India:

1. The Supreme Court held that ex-post facto environmental clearance can be granted through an Office Memorandum issued by the Central Government without any statutory backing.

2. Under the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, environmental clearance is generally required before the commencement of construction or operation of a project.

3. The Supreme Court ruled that the “polluter pays” principle allows projects that began without prior environmental clearance to be automatically regularised upon payment of compensation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Relevance: The question tests knowledge of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, environmental governance, and the role of the Supreme Court in interpreting environmental laws. UPSC can ask conceptual questions on environmental principles such as the polluter pays principle, precautionary principle, and environmental clearances.

Explanation

— The Supreme Court’s judgment striking down the Centre’s 2021 Office Memorandum (OM) that allowed retrospective approval for projects that had already commenced construction without environment clearances (ECs), now closes the door on blanket and open-ended regularisation of such projects. It leaves limited room for government action under statutory authority. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The court held that ex-post facto ECs cannot be created through an OM, but recognised that the government may, in exceptional circumstances and in public interest, provide such a mechanism through a statutory notification issued under delegated legislative powers.

— An OM is an administrative instruction issued by a ministry or department and does not have the force of law. A statutory notification, by contrast, is issued under authority granted by a statute — the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, in this case — and notified in the Gazette.

— Under the Environmental Impact Assessment Notification, 2006, projects requiring EC must obtain approval before starting operations. However, several projects began work or expanded operations without prior clearance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Supreme Court reiterated that the ‘polluter pays’ approach is meant to compensate for environmental damage and does not allow for automatic regularisation of projects that began operations without first obtaining environmental clearance. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Consider the following statements about the Committee for Metropolitan Planning:

1. The Legislature of a State makes provision with respect to the composition of the Metropolitan Planning Committees.

2. The Metropolitan Planning Committee is constituted in every district having a population of more than ten lakh.

3. At least half of the members of the Metropolitan Planning Committee shall be nominated by the State Government.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The question tests constitutional provisions relating to Metropolitan Planning Committees (Article 243ZE) under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. UPSC can ask questions on Urban Local Bodies, constitutional bodies, their composition, and planning functions, especially in the context of urban governance and decentralisation.

Explanation

— There shall be constituted in every Metropolitan area a Metropolitan Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan for the Metropolitan area as a whole. A Metropolitan Planning Committee is constituted for every Metropolitan area. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to—

(a) the composition of the Metropolitan Planning Committees; Hence, statement 1 is correct.

(b) the manner in which the seats in such Committees shall be filled:

Provided that not less than two-thirds of the members of such Committee shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area in proportion to the ratio between the population of the Municipalities and of the Panchayats in that area; Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

(c) the representation in such Committees of the Government of India and the Government of the State and of such organisations and institutions as may be deemed necessary for carrying out the functions assigned to such Committees;

(d) the functions relating to planning and coordination for the Metropolitan area which may be assigned to such Committees;

(e) the manner in which the Chairpersons of such Committees shall be chosen.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 4

Consider the following statements:

1. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court, whose decision shall be final.

2. If the Supreme Court declares the election of the President or Vice-President void, all official acts performed by them before the Court’s decision also become invalid.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: This question tests constitutional provisions relating to the election and removal of the President and Vice-President, particularly Article 71. UPSC frames questions on constitutional offices, election disputes, and the legal consequences of judicial decisions affecting constitutional authorities.

Explanation

— All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. Hence, statement 1 is correct

— If the election of a person as President or Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

Section 66E of the Information Technology Act, 2000, primarily deals with:

(a) Unauthorised disclosure of personal data by service providers

(b) Capturing, publishing or transmitting images of private body parts without consent

(c) Regulation of digital news publishers

(d) Interception of electronic communications by government agencies

Relevance: The question is relevant in the context of digital privacy, cyber laws, and data protection, which are recurring UPSC themes.

Explanation

— Women who recently participated in protests at New Delhi’s Jantar Mantar are finding themselves at the centre of an online backlash. Social media accounts have shared videos and photographs of a number of such women at the protests, and made public their personal details such as phone numbers and home addresses. This has resulted in several instances of harassment, including rape and death threats.

— The act of publicly revealing private personal information to intimidate or shame someone is known as doxxing. Despite its severe real-world consequences, doxxing is not explicitly defined or penalised as a criminal offence under Indian law. Legal experts point out that victims have to navigate a patchwork of existing statutes under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita and the Information Technology Act to find recourse.

— If doxxing leads to someone monitoring a woman’s internet use or trying to contact her repeatedly, it attracts Section 78 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which deals with stalking. Similarly, rape and death threats fall under Section 351 of the BNS, which criminalises criminal intimidation. If the victim is a minor, Section 12 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act — which penalises sexual harassment of minors — is attracted as well.

— Section 66E of the IT Act criminalises the capturing or publishing of images of private body parts without consent. For general personal data, victims have to rely on Section 72A of the Information Technology Act, which penalises the unauthorised disclosure of information. However, this section primarily provides for a financial penalty of up to Rs 5 lakh, making it a civil wrong, rather than a criminal offence.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 159)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 173)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 173)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 173)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 173)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 173)

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