UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 173): MCQs on right to stage a protest, fast track courts and more

3. The creation of special courts must satisfy Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: Fast Track Courts are important under Judiciary and Governance, especially in the context of judicial reforms and pendency reduction. Current debates on strengthening the justice delivery system make special courts and tribunal-related provisions highly relevant for the examination.

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s promise to set up fast-track courts (FTCs) to take up paper leak cases has turned attention to what is seen as a silver bullet to judicial delays: the fast-track court. Both the government and the judiciary have periodically relied on FTCs to expedite the legal process for specific, high-priority offences.

— There is no single, central legislation that governs these courts. The push to dedicate courts to specific demographics came from the Fourteenth Finance Commission (2015–2020), which recommended setting up 1,800 FTCs to expedite the trial of heinous crimes such as murder, kidnapping, and extortion, as well as property disputes pending for over five years. It also recommended them for cases involving vulnerable demographics, including women, children, senior citizens, persons with disabilities and individuals afflicted with terminal illnesses. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— In 2019, following an amendment to the criminal laws and a directive from the Supreme Court, the Union government launched a centrally sponsored scheme to establish fast-track special courts (FTSCs). Funded partially by the Nirbhaya Fund, these special courts are exclusively dedicated to the time-bound trial of rape cases and offences under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act.

— The creation of special courts must satisfy Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law. In the 1952 judgment State of West Bengal vs Anwar Ali Sarkar, the Supreme Court struck down a law that allowed the government to arbitrarily pick cases for special courts simply for the “object of speedier trial”. The court warned that “speed” is too vague and elusive a criterion on its own. To survive constitutional scrutiny, the classification of cases chosen for fast-tracking must have a rational, objective basis – such as the specific nature of the offence or the vulnerability of the victims. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— However, in the recent past, courts have been less compelled to draw the same red line, especially in cases where there seems to be a public demand for speedy justice. The Andhra Pradesh High Court established a special court in February 2010 to exclusively try the multi-crore Satyam Computer Services accounting scam.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the right to stage a protest, consider the following statements:

1. The right to stage a protest is protected under the Fundamental Right to Freedom.

2. These rights are subject to “reasonable restrictions” in the interests of “the sovereignty and integrity of India.

3. The Indian Constitution guarantees to citizens of India the right to assemble, peacefully without arms.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Relevance: Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are a perennial UPSC topic, particularly the distinction between rights and their reasonable restrictions. Recent judicial pronouncements and debates on protests, public order, and civil liberties make this topic highly relevant for the examination.

Explanation

— The right to stage a protest is protected under the Fundamental Right to Freedom. Under Article 19 (1) (a) and (b), citizens have the right to “freedom of speech and expression”, and to “assemble peaceably and without arms.” However, these rights are subject to “reasonable restrictions” in the interests of “the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.” Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Thus, while citizens have every right to organise a protest, it has to be done keeping the restrictions in mind. The general practice to regulate a protest in India has been to mark designated spots for it, make police permission mandatory, and impose prohibitory orders under Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (earlier Section 144 of the CrPC).

— At the 47th Session of the UN Human Rights Council in Geneva in 2021, India’s representative had said in a statement, “One cherished and valuable aspect of the inclusive political life in India, the largest democracy of the world, is the tradition to express grievances through peaceful assembly and marches. Organised, non-violent and popular marches by the people of India was the key weapon in the struggle for independence. Naturally the right to peaceful assembly has been recognised as a fundamental right by the Indian Constitution.

— Article 19 of Indian Constitution guarantees to citizens of India the right to assemble, peacefully without arms, and the right to form associations and unions. The Supreme Court has ruled that the Constitution also guarantees the right to peaceful protest.” Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to Article 371 of the Constitution of India, consider the following pairs:

1. Article 371 – Maharashtra and Gujarat

2. Article 371A – Assam

3. Article 371B – Nagaland

4. Article 371C – Sikkim

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Relevance: Articles 371 to 371J are frequently tested under the topics of Constitutional Provisions, Federalism, and Special Status of States. UPSC can ask state–article matching, the scope of special provisions, and distinctions from other constitutional arrangements.

Explanation

— The Ladakh administration’s decision to constitute Autonomous Hill Development Councils (AHDCs) in each of the Union Territory’s seven districts has reopened a debate over how political power should be distributed in the region. While the administration says the move will deepen grassroots governance, the two civil society groups negotiating Ladakh’s future with the Centre — the Apex Body, Leh (ABL) and the Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) — argue that it could weaken the representative political structure they have been demanding under Article 371.

— Article 371, Maharashtra and Gujarat: Governor has “special responsibility” to establish “separate development boards” for “Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra”, and Saurashtra and Kutch in Gujarat; ensure “equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said areas”, and “equitable arrangement providing adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training, and adequate opportunities for employment” under the state government. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

— Article 371A (13th Amendment Act, 1962), Nagaland: This provision was inserted after a 16-point agreement between the Centre and the Naga People’s Convention in 1960, which led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963. Parliament cannot legislate in matters of Naga religion or social practices, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land without concurrence of the state Assembly. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

— Article 371B (22nd Amendment Act, 1969), Assam: The President may provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Assembly consisting of members elected from the state’s tribal areas. Hence, pair 3 is not correct.

— Article 371C (27th Amendment Act, 1971), Manipur: The President may provide for the constitution of a committee of elected members from the Hill areas in the Assembly, and entrust “special responsibility” to the Governor to ensure its proper functioning. Hence, pair 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

To read more about Article 371: What is Article 371?

QUESTION 4

Consider the following statements about the National Register of Citizens (NRC):

1. It has its roots in the Assam Accord of 1985.

2. It fixes the cut-off date for identifying illegal migrants who entered Assam from Myanmar.

3. The provision of NRC applies to only West Bengal and Assam.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Relevance: UPSC can frame questions on cut-off dates, legal provisions, and the distinction between NRC, NPR, Census, and the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA). Understanding the NRC exercise and its constitutional and legal basis is important for both conceptual clarity and factual accuracy in the Prelims.

Explanation

— Nearly seven years after the final National Register of Citizens (NRC) for Assam was published, the exercise is at a standstill — neither have identity cards been issued for those included, nor has the appeal process begun for those excluded.

— More than 3.11 crore people whose names appear in the NRC have not received their national identity cards. Around 19 lakh people excluded from the register have been unable to challenge that exclusion, because they were never issued rejection slips stating the reasons. The petition says that this “inaction has converted a court-sanctioned exercise meant to restore confidence into a discriminatory regime that singles out the people of Assam for perpetual suspicion and denial of closure. This offends both the federal principle and the guarantee of equal citizenship”.

— The exercise, which has its roots in the Assam Accord of 1985, fixed March 24, 1971 as the cut-off date for identifying illegal migrants who entered the state from Bangladesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Parliament gave this legal shape through Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, a provision that applies only to Assam. Applicants had to prove citizenship using “legacy data”, mainly the 1951 NRC and electoral rolls up to the 1971 cut-off, plus documents showing lineage to those records. The final list came out on August 31, 2019, with 3.11 crore included, and 19 lakh excluded. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

The K Radhakrishnan Committee report is related to:

(a) Establishing a Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)

(b) Reforming the National Testing Agency (NTA) and public examination system

(c) Restructuring the University Grants Commission (UGC)

(d) National Education Policy implementation in higher education

Relevance: Expert committees and their mandates are frequently tested in UPSC, especially when linked to major governance reforms. UPSC may ask about the purpose, recommendations, or institutional context of such committees.

Explanation

— As the Supreme Court heard petitions seeking changes to the conduct of the NEET examination after the 2026 paper leak controversy, the Centre informed the court that it has constituted a high-powered committee under entrepreneur and Infosys cofounder Nandan Nilekani to recommend the next phase of examination reforms. This came on the same day the Central government introduced the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill in Lok Sabha to strengthen the anti-paper leak law and increase the punishment for those involved in paper leaks.

— The Centre’s decision regarding the Nilekani-led committee has brought attention to an earlier reform blueprint: the K Radhakrishnan Committee report. The Committee, which was constituted in 2024 after the NEET-UG 2024 paper leak controversy, submitted a report containing 101 recommendations “with short term, medium term and long-term perspective”.

— The K. Radhakrishnan Committee, constituted after the NEET-UG 2024 paper leak controversy, submitted 101 recommendations to reform the National Testing Agency (NTA).

— The report was prepared under former ISRO Chairman Dr K Radhakrishnan and submitted to the Ministry of Education in October 2024. The panel said that the report was developed after “twenty-three formal full-day physical sittings” and more than 37,000 responses received from students and parents through the MyGov portal. Its stated vision was to transform the National Testing Agency (NTA) into “a nimble, zero-error, adaptive and integrative process”.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 159)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 172)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 172)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 172)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 172)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 172)

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