UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 172): MCQs on Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026, Autonomous District Councils and more

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: UPSC can ask questions on important Bills and Acts, particularly those amending existing legislation. The Bill is significant because it proposes to extend statutory protection under the 1971 Act to the National Song, a recent legislative development.

Explanation

— The Government is all set to bring a Bill in the Rajya Sabha on the first day of the Monsoon Session that will make any obstruction or insult to the national song “Vande Mataram” a criminal offence — at par with the national anthem “Jana Gana Mana”.

— According to the List of Business for the Rajya Sabha, “The Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026” is likely to be introduced by the Union Home Minister .

— The Bill proposes to amend the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, which makes desecration of or disrespect toward the country’s national symbols, including the national flag, the Constitution and the national anthem, a criminal offence, with a punishment of up to three years’ imprisonment as well as provisions for a fine. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— According to a copy of the proposed legislation circulated among MPs, the Bill seeks to substitute the existing Section 3 of the 1971 Act to effectively bring “Vande Mataram” at par with “Jana Gana Mana” with regard to alleged acts of prevention or disturbance against singing them, with the same penal provisions — three years, a fine, or both.

— “Whoever, intentionally — (a) prevents the singing of the National Anthem or the National Song; or (b) causes disturbance to any assembly engaged in such singing, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both,” the Bill states.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker can preside over the meeting.

2. The Speaker shall have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings, while the resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration.

3. He cannot vote when the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: UPSC can ask constitutional and procedural questions on the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, including removal, powers, and voting rights. Articles 93–97 relating to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are important areas for factual Prelims questions.

Explanation

— At any sitting of the Legislative Assembly, while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker, or while any resolution for the removal of the Deputy Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Deputy Speaker, shall not, though he is present, preside, and the provisions of clause (2) of article 180 shall apply in relation to every such sitting as they apply in relation to a sitting from which the Speaker or, as the case may be, the Deputy Speaker, is absent. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Speaker shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the Legislative Assembly while any resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in the Assembly and shall, notwithstanding anything in article 189, be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), consider the following statements:

1. The ADCs can make laws, rules and regulations concerning land, forests and other matters.

2. The ADCs derive their powers from the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.

3. The jurisdiction of ADCs extends uniformly to all tribal areas across India.

4. The decisions of ADCs cannot be reviewed by any court in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Relevance: The Sixth Schedule is a frequently tested constitutional topic, especially its distinction from the Fifth Schedule. UPSC can frame questions on the powers, jurisdiction, composition, and constitutional status of Autonomous District Councils.

Explanation

— The Ladakh administration’s decision to constitute Autonomous Hill Development Councils (AHDCs) in each of the Union Territory’s seven districts has reopened a debate over how political power should be distributed in the region.

— While the administration says the move will deepen grassroots governance, the two civil society groups negotiating Ladakh’s future with the Centre — the Apex Body, Leh (ABL) and the Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) — argue that it could weaken the representative political structure they have been demanding under Article 371. The disagreement also reflects a trust deficit that has steadily widened between Ladakh’s leadership and the Centre since the region became a Union Territory in 2019.

— The administration argues that the two initiatives are complementary. Section 3 of the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council Act provides for the constitution of a council in every district through government notification, and officials say the creation of seven districts logically necessitates seven councils.

About ADCs

— The administration of the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) is managed by the elected members, with some being nominated by the Governor for a term of 5 years. These councils have specific powers related to the areas of Tribal Affairs and Hills, including the ability to make laws, rules and regulations concerning land, forests and other matters. The Autonomous District Councils receive funding from the State government and Central grants. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— ADCs are constituted under the Sixth Schedule. ADCs exist only in the Sixth Schedule areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Tribal areas in other states are governed under the Fifth Schedule or other legal arrangements. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

— The actions and decisions of ADCs are subject to judicial review by the High Courts and the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA Act), consider the following statements:

1. It was enacted to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part XI of the Constitution of India.

2. It ensures self-governance through Gram Sabhas (village assemblies) for people living in the Scheduled Areas.

3. It is enacted through India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Relevance: PESA Act, 1996 is an important topic under Polity and Governance, especially in relation to tribal self-governance and the Fifth Schedule. UPSC can test the applicability, objectives, and powers of Gram Sabhas under PESA, along with distinctions between the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.

Explanation

— The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 “to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas”. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— It ensures self-governance through Gram Sabhas (village assemblies) for people living in the Scheduled Areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— It recognises the rights of tribal communities over natural resources. PESA has been enacted in ten states — Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

The original Constitution:

1. comprised 395 Articles

2. does not have a preamble

3. came into force on January 26, 1950

4. consists of 24 parts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4 only

Relevance: Questions on the basic features and historical evolution of the Constitution are a recurring theme in UPSC Prelims. Aspirants should know facts such as the original number of Articles, Parts, Schedules, the Preamble, and the date the Constitution came into force.

Explanation

— The original Constitution, comprising a Preamble and 395 Articles, came into force on January 26, 1950 – commemorating the Purna Swaraj day first observed on January 26, 1930. Hence, 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is not correct.

— The original Indian Constitution had 22 parts. Hence, 4 is not correct.

— Through this long and meticulous process, the framers envisioned India as a sovereign, democratic republic, adopting a parliamentary model of government within a federal structure.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 159)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 171)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 171)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 171)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 171)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 171)

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