UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 166): MCQs on Panchayat Advancement Index, Advocate-General for the State and more

(a) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

(b) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 5 only

Relevance: The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) is important in the context of rural governance, decentralisation, and the Localisation of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs). Questions may test awareness of its purpose, nodal ministry, themes, and its role in assessing Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Explanation

— Panchayats from the five southern states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Telangana and Tamil Nadu bagged 18 of 42 National Panchayat Awards 2025, while those from the Hindi heartland states like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar could manage to win just one each.

— The awards, conferred by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj annually, recognise outstanding local rural bodies across the country for their contribution towards the Localisation of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs) and excellence in grassroots governance. The performance of the local bodies is assessed through the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI), which evaluates panchayats across governance, infrastructure, livelihoods, social justice, environment, and women empowerment indicators.

— Indicators like Agricultural and farm productivity, education, and Migration are not covered under PAI.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. Discussion can take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.

2. The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: Articles relating to Parliamentary privileges, judicial independence, and the relationship between the Legislature and Judiciary are frequently tested in Polity. Aspirants should be familiar with constitutional provisions such as Articles 105, 121, and 122, especially restrictions on parliamentary discussions and judicial review of parliamentary proceedings.

Explanation

— The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge as hereinafter provided. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Advocate-General for the State, consider the following statements:

1. The President appoints the Advocate-General for the State.

2. A person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as the Advocate-General for the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The constitutional offices of Attorney General, Advocate General, Governor, and High Court judges are recurring areas in Polity. UPSC often frames questions by interchanging appointing authorities and eligibility criteria, making a close reading of constitutional provisions important.

Explanation

— The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— It shall be the duty of the Advocate-General to give advice to the Government of the State upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the Governor, and to discharge the functions conferred on him by or under this Constitution or any other law for the time being in force.

— The Advocate-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the Governor may determine.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 4

Who has the exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List?

(a) President

(b) Rajya Sabha alone.

(c) Parliament

(d) Governor of that State

Relevance: The doctrine of residuary powers is a core feature of India’s quasi-federal structure and is derived from Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List. UPSC can test the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States, especially through conceptual questions on the Seventh Schedule and constitutional provisions governing federalism.

Explanation

— Article 248 of the Constitution of India provides for the Residuary powers of legislation.

— The Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Council of States, consider the following statements:

1. The Council of States shall not be subject to dissolution.

2. Nearly one-third of the members thereof shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The composition, tenure, retirement system, and special powers of the Rajya Sabha can be tested in Polity. UPSC often frames questions around the distinction between the permanent nature of the Rajya Sabha and the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, making Articles 80 and 83 particularly important.

Explanation

— The Council of States shall not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year in accordance with the provisions made in that behalf by Parliament by law. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— The House of the People, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer and the expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as a dissolution of the House. Provided that the said period may, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 157)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 165)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 165)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 165)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 165)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 165)

Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.