UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 164): MCQs on public authority, Cabinet Secretariat and more

2. It does not include bodies that are “owned, controlled, or substantially financed” by the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: This is relevant for UPSC Prelims because the Right to Information Act, 2005 is a core part of Indian polity and governance, with UPSC frequently testing statutory definitions and institutional provisions. Understanding the scope of “public authority” is essential for questions on transparency, accountability, quasi-government bodies, and citizen access to information.

Explanation

— The BCCI’s position outside the ambit of both “State” under Article 12 of the Constitution and “public authority” under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act sits at the heart of the order.

— Section 2(h) defines a “public authority” as “any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted” by the Constitution, laws made by Parliament or state legislatures, or government notifications. It also includes bodies that are “owned, controlled or substantially financed” by the government, including NGOs substantially financed by public funds. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Article 12 defines “State” to include the government and Parliament of India, state governments and legislatures, and “all local or other authorities” under the control of the government. Over the years, courts have expanded this definition through judicial interpretation, particularly in cases involving bodies performing public functions.

— The National Sports Governance Act, 2025, which provides that sports bodies receiving grants from the government would be treated as public authorities under the RTI Act to the extent of utilisation of those funds. Since the BCCI receives no such grants, it falls outside this statutory extension.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the role of the Cabinet Secretariat, consider the following statements:

1. It is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules.

2. It assists in decision-making in the government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: This is relevant for UPSC Prelims because questions on constitutional and administrative bodies are frequently asked to test conceptual clarity about the structure and functioning of the Union executive. It is important to understand the institutional mechanisms that ensure policy coordination, decision-making, and smooth governance at the central level.

Explanation

— The Cabinet Secretariat is in charge of administering the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, which facilitate smooth business transactions in the Government’s Ministries and Departments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— This Secretariat provides secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and its Committees, as well as assisting in government decision-making by ensuring inter-ministerial coordination, resolving differences between Ministries/Departments, and developing consensus through the use of standing/adhoc Secretaries’ Committees. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: cabsec.gov.in)

QUESTION 3

Consider the following statements:

1. The civil society groups from Leh and Kargil have jointly been granted full statehood for Ladakh and its inclusion under the Sixth Schedule.

2. Ladakh has over 90% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population, which requires constitutional safeguards over land, resources and cultural identity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Relevance: This is relevant for UPSC Prelims 2026 because questions on Union Territories, constitutional safeguards, and tribal protection mechanisms are frequently asked in polity and governance. It is important to understand the provisions of the Sixth Schedule, issues related to Ladakh’s administrative status, and the constitutional framework for protecting Scheduled Tribe interests, land rights, and local self-governance.

Explanation

— The civil society groups from Leh and Kargil have jointly demanded full statehood for Ladakh and its inclusion under the Sixth Schedule, arguing that the Union Territory’s over 90% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population requires constitutional safeguards over land, resources and cultural identity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— While Chhewang may be alone in his fight against the ABL leadership, a new outfit, Voice of Buddhist Ladakh (VBL), formed early this year amid allegation of it being a “BJP proxy”, could throw its weight behind him. The VBL has claimed to represent Buddhist interests in negotiations with the Centre. The ABL has alleged that the VBL had been propped up by the administration to undercut the joint movement of the Leh and Kargil organisations.

Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, consider the following statements:

1. It allows the “private sector and foreign companies to operate nuclear power plants in India.

2. The SHANTI Act has repealed the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.

3. Recent petition has challenged the SHANTI Act under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution, arguing that the Act’s liability structure is a violation of rights the Supreme Court has already declared non-negotiable.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: This is relevant for UPSC Prelims 2026 because nuclear energy remains a key part of India’s energy security and clean energy transition strategy, making developments in the SHANTI Act important for science and technology as well as governance. It is significant for understanding India’s nuclear liability framework, private sector participation in strategic sectors, and regulatory reforms.

Explanation

— The petition challenges the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, as it allows the “private sector and foreign companies to operate nuclear power plants in India, [and] has also capped the liability of these operators at an absurdly low level and exempted the supplier from any liability,” in violation of the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Before SHANTI, India’s nuclear liability framework rested on the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, which established a no-fault regime. Victims of a nuclear incident did not have to prove negligence, only damage. SHANTI repealed the 2010 Act. Under Section 11, the operator is liable for nuclear damage, but Section 13, read with the Second Schedule, fragments that liability by reactor size. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The petition challenges SHANTI under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution, arguing that the Act’s liability structure is a violation of rights the Supreme Court has already declared non-negotiable. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Who is responsible for regularly reviewing the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) works and addressing the gaps related to drinking water services?

(a) District Collector

(b) District Judge

(c) Chief Minister

(d) Member of Parliament

Relevance: This is relevant for UPSC Prelims 2026 because flagship government schemes like the Jal Jeevan Mission are frequently asked in relation to their implementation framework, institutional accountability, and governance structure.

Explanation

— The Centre has asked district collectors to regularly review the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) works and address the gaps related to drinking water services, including regularity, adequacy, water quality, grievance redressal and Operation and Maintenance (O&M) of schemes.

— The JJM 2.0 marks a transition from asset creation to sustained drinking water service delivery in rural India, he said during the meeting organised through video conferencing to deliberate on the implementation framework of the JJM 2.0 and the effective enforcement of Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, in rural areas.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 156)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 163)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 163)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 163)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 163)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 163)

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