UPSC Prelims 2026 Polity Quiz (Week 162): MCQs on Chief of Defence Staff, Schedules of the Indian Constitution and more

How many of the pairs given above are correctly marked?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Relevance: The Schedules of the Indian Constitution are a highly important and frequently asked area in UPSC Prelims under Indian Polity. This topic is also relevant for understanding decentralisation, tribal administration, land reform laws, and local self-government institutions in India.

Explanation

— Sixth schedule: Provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Hence, pairs 3 is correct.

— Ninth schedule: Validation of certain Acts and Regulations. Hence, pairs 2 is not correct.

— Eleventh schedule: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. Hence, pairs 1 is not correct.

— Twelfth schedule: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities, etc.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.

Statement 2: To exercise this power, the Governor invites the party that has the people’s mandate and stakes a claim to form the government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Relevance: The role of the Governor in government formation is a recurring and important topic in Indian Polity for UPSC Prelims. Questions can be framed on constitutional provisions related to the appointment of the Chief Minister, discretionary powers of the Governor, and floor-test procedures in hung assemblies.

Explanation

— Article 164 of the Constitution says the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister, and that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— To exercise this power, the Governor invites the party that has the people’s mandate and stakes a claim to form the government. The Governor then fixes a time to administer the oath of office to the Chief Minister designate. A pro-tem speaker is appointed, usually the senior-most legislator among the elected, to administer the oath to the MLAs and conduct a floor test. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The single-largest party convention has been reiterated several times in judgments of the Supreme Court. Given the fraught political nature of the Raj Bhavans, opposition parties have sought the Court’s intervention in staking a claim to form the government.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Recently, which of the following Indian states has made amendments to their Marriage, Divorce and Inheritance of Property Act?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Mizoram

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Manipur

Relevance: This topic is important for UPSC Prelims because it relates to personal laws, customary practices, and legislative powers of states, especially in the Northeast. It is also relevant in the context of debates on gender justice, inheritance rights, and the Uniform Civil Code in India.

Explanation

— A petition filed in the Supreme Court challenging the constitutional validity of amendments made to the Mizo Marriage, Divorce and Inheritance of Property Act, 2014, argues that the new amendments strip the Mizo women of legal protections they previously enjoyed, while retaining similar ones for Mizo men.

— The petitioners state that the amendments reshape how law treats inter-community marriages, tribal identity, and property rights after divorce in ways that disadvantage women who marry outside the Mizo community.

— The 2014 Act applied, in its original form, to “any person who belongs to any Mizo tribe” and also to “marriages where male members of the parties belongs to any Mizo tribe”. That second clause was the operative one for inter-community marriages, it meant that a Mizo woman who married outside the tribe remained within the Act’s protection because the Act’s scope was not conditioned on both spouses being Mizo.

— The 2026 amendment rewrote Section 2 to read that the Act applies to “all marriages where both the parties belong to Mizo tribe or where the male member to the marriage belongs to any Mizo tribe”.

— The original definition covered “individuals who are Mizo by birth; by adoption of minor child and persons who have been accepted as Mizo by the society and community at large”. That last category, “acceptance by the community”, was removed entirely.

— The new definition covers only those who are “Mizo by birth or whose father belongs to any Mizo tribe” and includes a legally adopted child. Identity under the amended law is now traced exclusively through paternal lineage. A person whose mother is Mizo but whose father is not would not qualify.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

To read more: How a new Mizo marriage law protects men, but keeps women out

QUESTION 4

With reference to the post of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), consider the following statements:

1. The post of the CDS was created during 2019.

2. In 2022, the service rules were amended to allow serving or retired Lt Generals (and equivalents) below the age of 62 to be appointed as CDS.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The post of CDS is important for UPSC Prelims because it is linked to defence reforms, higher military management, and the integration of the three armed forces. Questions can be framed on its creation, appointment rules, age limits, powers, and recommendations of committees such as the Kargil Review Committee and Shekatkar Committee.

Explanation

— Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani (retd) has been appointed as India’s next Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and Secretary, Department of Military Affairs (DMA), and he will assume office on May 31. He will be India’s third CDS after the late Gen Bipin Rawat and Gen Anil Chauhan, who assumed office in September 2022 and whose three-year term was extended until the end of May.

— The post of the CDS was created during Modi 2.0 in December 2019, and the then army chief, General Rawat, was appointed as the first incumbent in January 2020, after he had completed his tenure as chief. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The government did not appoint a CDS for almost a year, and it was only at the end of September 2022 that the second CDS was appointed.

— The choice was a surprise, in that the Modi government decided to appoint a retired three-star officer, then Lt General Anil Chauhan, and promote him to four-star.

— This was unprecedented, and while the government created the legal basis in June 2022 by amending the service rules to allow serving or retired Lt Generals (and equivalents) below the age of 62 to be appointed as CDS, it created an anomalous disruption in India’s hallowed military traditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution bars courts from entertaining election disputes except through an election petition under the Representation of the People Act, 1951?

(a) Article 324

(b) Article 327

(c) Article 329

(d) Article 356

Relevance:This topic is important for UPSC Prelims because election-related constitutional provisions are a core part of Indian Polity and are frequently asked in exams. Questions can be framed on the powers of the Election Commission, election petitions, judicial review, and provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Explanation

— At the centre of the case lies Article 329(b) of the Constitution, which bars courts from entertaining election disputes except through an election petition under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

— Ordinarily, courts do not intervene in election disputes through writ proceedings under Article 226. The Madras High Court acknowledged this limitation. Sethupathi argued that Periakaruppan’s remedy lay only through an election petition under Sections 80 and 100 of the Act.

— The High Court, however, relied on the Supreme Court’s ruling in Election Commission of India v. Ashok Kumar (2000), which recognised a narrow exception permitting judicial intervention where it is necessary to preserve evidence or remove obstacles affecting the electoral process.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for April 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 155)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 161)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 161)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 161)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 161)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 161)

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