UPSC Prelims 2026 Polity Quiz (Week 159): MCQs on Overseas Citizen of India, Lok Sabha seats and more

2. Article 81 of the Constitution of India pertains to the distribution of Lok Sabha seats among states.

3. At present, the distribution of Lok Sabha seats are fixed at 2001 Census levels.

How many of the statements given rabove are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The question is important for prelims due togg frequent confusion between delimitation and inter-state seat distribution. The question tests conceptual clarity on the role of Delimitation Commission of India is essential for eliminating close options.

Explanation

— Article 81 (3) says, “In this article, the expression ‘population’ means the population as ascertained at the last preceding census of which the relevant figures have been published: Provided that the reference in this clause to the last preceding census of which the relevant figures have been published shall, until the relevant figures for the first census taken after the year 2026 have been published, be construed — (i) for the purposes of sub-clause (a) of clause (2) and the proviso to that clause, as a reference to the 1971 census; and (ii) for the purposes of sub-clause (b) of clause (2) as a reference to the 2001 census.”

— Clause 2 sub-clause (a) of Article 81 pertains to the distribution of Lok Sabha seats among states, and says, “There shall be allotted to each State a number of seats in the House of the People in such manner that the ratio between that number and the population of the State is, so far as practicable, the same for all States.” This was frozen at 1971 Census levels. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) is a citizen:

1. who is a citizen of another country, but was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after the commencement of the Constitution.

2. who is a citizen of another country, but was eligible to become a citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the Constitution.

3. who is a citizen of another country, but belonged to a territory that became part of India after August 15, 1947.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Relevance: The question tests understanding of citizenship provisions under the Citizenship Act, 1955. It is also relevant for mains (GS-II) in the context of diaspora engagement and India’s external relations.

Explanation

— On a two-day official visit to Sri Lanka, Vice-President C P Radhakrishnan on Sunday announced the extension of the eligibility for Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card for the Indian community in the island nation till the sixth generation. Until now, this was limited to the fourth generation.

— Any person of full age and capacity: –

(i) who is a citizen of another country, but was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after the commencement of the Constitution i.e. 26.01.1950 or

(ii) who is a citizen of another country, but was eligible to become a citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the Constitution i.e. on 26.01.1950 or

(iii) who is a citizen of another country, but belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15.08.1947 or

(iv) who is a child or a grandchild or a great grandchild of such a citizen; or

(b) a person, who is a minor child of a person mentioned in (a) above; or

(c) a person, who is a minor child, and whose both parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India; or

(d) spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder registered under section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.mha.gov.in)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the parliamentary bill, consider the following statements:

1. A Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament.

2. Rajya Sabha cannot return a Money Bill transmitted to it with recommendations.

3. All the Constitution Amendment Bills are adopted by simple majority.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Relevance: The question tests core understanding of legislative procedures under the Constitution of India, especially types of Bills and their passage. It is important for prelims as questions due to being in news.

Explanation

— The process of law making begins with the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. A Bill can be introduced either by a Minister or a member other than a Minister. In the former case, it is called a Government Bill and in the latter case, it is known as a Private Member’s Bill.

— A Money Bill can not be introduced in Rajya Sabha. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with prior recommendation of the President for introduction in Lok Sabha. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker thereon is final. Rajya Sabha is required to return a Money Bill passed and transmitted by Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days from the date of its receipt. Rajya Sabha may return a Money Bill transmitted to it with or without recommendations. It is open to Lok Sabha to accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament. While motions for introduction of Constitution Amendment Bills are adopted by simple majority , a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting is required for adoption of effective clauses and motions for consideration and passing of these Bills. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: sansad.in)

QUESTION 4

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for power of the President to consult the Supreme Court?

(a) Article 141

(b) Article 142

(c) Article 143

(d) Article 139

Relevance: The question tests knowledge of advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India under the Indian Constitution. It is important for prelims as questions often focus on specific Articles and their functions.

Explanation

— Article 143 of the Constitution of India provides for the power of the President to consult the Supreme Court.

— If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.

— The President may refer a dispute to the Supreme Court for opinion and the Supreme Court shall, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), consider the following statements:

1. A UCC refers to the idea of a common set of laws governing personal matters.

2. Rajasthan is the first state in India to implement UCC.

3. It is enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

Relevance: It tests understanding of Uniform Civil Code. It also links static polity with contemporary governance debates. It would also help in understanding the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles in judicial interpretation.

Explanation

— Last week, Union Home Minister Amit Shah said that the BJP would implement a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in West Bengal within six months if the party won the upcoming Assembly election in the state.

— A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc. Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Article 44 is one of the directive principles. These, as defined in Article 37, are not justiciable (not enforceable by any court) but the principles laid down therein are fundamental in governance. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Uttarakhand is the first state in independent India to implement the Uniform Civil Code (UCC). Historically, Goa has been the only state in India where a common civil code has been in practice—the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 153)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 158)

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Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 158)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 158)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 158)

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