UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on Parliamentary Standing Committee, electoral trusts and more (Week 142)

2. Electoral trusts are required to report to the Election Commission contributions from individuals and companies, and their donations to parties every year.

3. Electoral trusts must apply for renewal every five financial years.

4. They must donate 25 per cent of contributions received in a financial year to political parties registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— With the scrapping of the electoral bonds scheme, companies have again turned to electoral trusts as a preferred source of political donations for companies in 2024-25. In 2023-24, just five trusts reported contributions of a total of Rs 1,218.36 crore. Then, the Supreme Court scrapped the electoral bonds scheme in February 2024. In 2024-25, the number of electoral trusts reporting contributions increased to nine. And the cumulative contribution surged to Rs 3,811 crore.

— The electoral trust scheme was introduced by the UPA government in 2013. It preceded the electoral bonds scheme that was introduced by the NDA government in 2018. Both schemes are meant to facilitate donations to political parties by corporations and individuals. But while the electoral bonds scheme sought to ensure donor anonymity, electoral trusts are required to report to the Election Commission contributions from individuals and companies, and their donations to parties every year. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Under Section 17CA of the Income Tax Act of 1961, any citizen of India, a company registered in India, or a firm or Hindu Undivided Family or association of persons living in India, can donate to an electoral trust. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Electoral trusts must apply for renewal every three financial years. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— They must donate 95% of contributions received in a financial year to political parties registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

A bulk or almost 82 per cent of its total donations of Rs 2,668 crore in 2024-2025 went to the BJP.

— The contributors’ PAN (in case of a resident) or passport number (in case of an NRI) is required at the time of making contributions.

— The electoral trusts route is transparent on contributors and beneficiaries.

— Trusts receive voluntary contributions from Indian citizens, domestic companies, firms, or Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) via cheques, bank drafts, or electronic transfers. Donors must disclose their Permanent Account Number (PAN).

— At least 95% of collected funds must be disbursed to registered political parties, with the remaining 5% administrative expenses. Trusts cannot use donations for members’ benefit.

— Trusts must maintain audited accounts, disclosing donors, recipients, and disbursements to the CBDT and the Election Commission of India (ECI).

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following:

“A member of the legislature is disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years. The only relief in such cases is a stay of the conviction, which would immediately void its consequences, such as disqualification.”

The above statement is provided under:

(a) Representation of the People Act, 1951

(b) Constitution of India

(c) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

(d) Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968

Explanation

— The Supreme Court stayed former Maharashtra agriculture minister Manikrao Kokate’s conviction in a document tampering case linked to the illegal acquisition of a government flat, and granted him temporary relief from disqualification as MLA.

— The stay of conviction by the Supreme Court means that his status as a convict is put on hold. Thus, some of the consequences of being a convict are also stayed. For instance, in cases where a convicted person is barred from certain appointments or jobs, a stay of conviction would bring relief.

— As per the Representation of Peoples Act, a member of the legislature is disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years. The only relief in such cases is a stay of the conviction, which would immediately void its consequences, such as disqualification.

— After the high court refused to stay the conviction, Kokate faced imminent disqualification. If he had not been granted the relief, the Speaker of the legislative assembly would have had to initiate the proceedings to disqualify him.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Rural Development and Panchayati Raj, consider the following statements:

1. The Committee consists of 21 members.

2. The members are nominated by the Prime Minister.

3. The term of office of the members of the Committee does not exceed one year.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Congress MP from Odisha’s Koraput, Saptagiri Sankar Ulaka, heads the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Rural Development and Panchayati Raj. As the Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025, or VB-G RAM G Bill, came up in the Lok Sabha, Ulaka wrote to Speaker Om Birla, urging him to refer the proposed law to the Standing Committee for a detailed examination.

About Parliamentary Standing Committee on Rural Development and Panchayati Raj

— A full-fledged system of Departmentally related Standing Committees by covering under their jurisdiction all the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India was formally created w.e.f. 8 April, 1993. The Standing Committee on Urban and Rural Development was one of the 17 Departmentally related Standing Committees.

— The Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from Lok Sabha, nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— A Minister is not nominated as a member of the Committee.

— The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the Committee from Lok Sabha.

— The term of office of the members of the Committee does not exceed one year. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: sansad.in)

QUESTION 4

The “Adjournment Motion” refers to:

(a) A motion introduced to regulate the conduct of business of the House

(b) A motion moved to express regret over the death of a sitting member of Parliament

(c) A Motion for discussing a specific and important matter that should have urgent consideration

(d) A motion related to the consideration and passing of a Money Bill

Explanation

— Adjournment Motion is a motion for discussing ‘a specific and important matter that should have urgent consideration’.

— It can be moved by any member of the House and is in the nature of an emergency motion of censure upon the Government.

— The object is to draw the attention of the Government to a matter of urgent public importance so as to criticise the decision of the Government in an urgent matter in regard to which a motion or resolution with proper notice will be too late.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: sansad.in)

QUESTION 5

With reference to Assisted dying, consider the following statements:

1. is treated as murder under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), or at the minimum, as culpable homicide.

2. It is an intention to cause death through the administration of a lethal injection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Assisted dying is an intention to cause death through the administration of a lethal injection. In India, this directly attracts criminal liability. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Assisted dying is treated as murder under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), or at the minimum, as culpable homicide. When a doctor assists the patient in performing the act, criminal liability arises for abetment to suicide. Attempted suicide continues to be an offence, even though the Supreme Court has repeatedly observed that a person attempting suicide requires care, not punishment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Withdrawing or withholding life-sustaining treatment, however, is treated differently because it is based on omission rather than action. It involves stopping or not initiating life-sustaining treatment and allowing the underlying illness or injury to take its course. The constitutional basis for this distinction lies in Article 21. Over the years, the Supreme Court has interpreted the “right to life” to include the right to live with dignity.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 136-137)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 141)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 141)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 141)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 141)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 141)

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