SSC CGL 2016: Solve this mock test before you appear for the exam

This mock tests will help you locate your weaknesses and understand how to maximise your overall score

New Delhi | Updated: August 4, 2016 5:37 pm
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Staff Selection Commission’s CGLE is one of the most coveted tests for graduates to secure a job in various central civil posts. In 2013, about 12 lakh candidates took the CGLE. This year, the exam is scheduled to be held on August 27. This mock tests will help you locate your weaknesses and understand how to maximise your overall score.

Direction: In questions number 1 to 3, select the related words/ letters/ number from the given alternatives.
1. 76 : 42 : : 66 : ?
1) 63 2) 12 3) 35 4) 36

2. PARLEG : ALGPRE :: NATURE : ?
1). AUETNR 2) AUENTR
3) AUNETR 4) ATENUR

3. 36 : 114 :: 49 : ?
1) 412 2) 228 3) 91 4) 81

Direction: In questions number 4 and 5 find the odd.
4.
1). TROK 2) WURN
3) AYVR 4) ACJF

5.
1) 136 – 1410 2) 312 – 316
3) 121 – 134 4) 691 – 61516

Directions: Questions number 6 and 7, which set of letters when sequentially placed at the paper in the given letter series.
6. a_cbc_ca_ab_bca_ab
1) b a b c c 2) b c a b b
3) a b c b c 4) b c a b c

7. aa _ a _ b _ abaa _
1) abab 2) baab 3) baba 4) abba

8. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary :
1) Recollect 2) Remember 3) Report 4) Repeat 5) Repeal
1) 1,3,2,4,5 2) 3,2,1,4,5
3) 5,3,4,2,1 4) 1,2,5,4,3
9. If SPANK is coded as PSNAK, then THROW is coded as
1) HTWOR 2) HTWRO
3) HTROW 4) HTORW
10. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?
2 × 3 + 6 – 12 ÷ 4 = 3
1) × and ÷ 2) + and –
3) + and ÷ 4) – and ÷

Direction:- (Q11-13) Find the missing number from given response:

11.

24  25  50
24  20  10
4   9    3
12  5   ?
1) 15 2) 20 3) 5 4) 40

12.

6 3  7  9
30 5 6
20 4 ?

1) 3 2) 5 3) 2 4) 8
13.

2  3  5
3  4  5
13  ?  41
1) 46 2) 23 3) 25 4) 31

14. Some statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

Statements:
All files are papers. Some papers are books.
Some books are journals.

Conclusions:
I. All files are journals.
II. All books are not journals
1) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2) Only conclusion I follows
3) Only conclusion II follows
4) Both conclusions I and II follow

15. In a row, 25 trees are planted at equal distance from each other. The distance between Ist and 25th tree is 30 m. What is the distance between 3rd and 15th tree?
1) 8 m 2) 15 m 3) 16 m 4) 18 m

Direction: (Q16-17) Find out the missing term.
16. DHK, GKN, JNQ, ? .
1) MRU 2) MQT 3) LPS 4) NRU
17. 46, 50,47, 55, 49, 61,?
1) 54 2) 52 3) 57 4) 51
18. Anand travels 10 kms from his home to the east to reach his school. Then he travels 5 kms to the south to reach his father’s shop, after school. He then travels 10 kms to the west to help his uncle. How far and in which direction is he from his home ?
1) 10 kms North 2) 5 kms South
3) 5 kms East 4) 10 kms West
19. At a birthday party, 5 friends are sitting in a row. ‘M’ is to the left of ‘O’ and to the right of ‘P’. ‘S’ is sitting to the right of T, but to the left of ‘P’. Who is sitting in the middle?
1) O 2) P 3) S 4) M

Directions: Question No. 20, two statements is given followed by conclusions / inferences. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions / inferences can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.
20. Statements:
(I) Some students are intelligent.
(II) Ankita is a student.
Conclusions:
1. Some students are dull.
2. Ankita is intelligent.
1) Only 1 follows 2) Only 1and2 follows
3) Only 2 follows 4) None follows

21. If H = 8 and HAT = 29, find how BOX = ?
1) 46 2) 43 3) 42 4) 41

22. From the answer figures, find out the figure which is the exact mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is place on the line ‘MN’?
Question figure:

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23. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Question figure:

23

24. Find the urban, corrupt employees in the following diagram:

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1) 11 2) 9 3) 7 4) 12

25. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix 1 are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘D’ can be represented by 11, 25, etc., and ‘J’ can be represented by 67, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the given word. “MILK”

25

1) 98,66,79,77 2) 98,79,77,86
3) 98,86,77,99 4) 86,77,99,98

26. = a + b then the value of a and b.
1) a = 2; b = 2) a = ; b = 2
3) a= 4; b= 4) a= ; b= 4

27. If 2(cos2– sin2) = 1 ( is a positive acute), then cot is equal to
1) 2) 3) 1 4)

28. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a building of height h units, from the top of a monument of height H units are complementary. If the distance between the building and the monument is ‘a’ units, then it is always true that
1) 2) 3) 4)

29. If cos43° = , then the value of tan 47° is
1) 2)
3) 4)

30. The avearage of 11 numbers is 63. If the average of first six numbers is 60 and the last six numbers is 65 then the 6th number is:
1) 57 2) 60 3) 62 4) 54

31. If x= , then x3+ 3bxis equal to:
1) 0 2) a 3) 2a 4) 1

32. Two circles with centres P and Q intersect at B and C. A, D are points on the circles with centres P and Q respectively such that A, C, D are collinear. If APB = 130° and BQD = x°, then the value of x is:
1) 65 2) 130 3) 195 4) 135

33. A group of 18 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 18 days. A woman takes twice as much time as a man to do the work. How many days will 8 men take to finish the same work ?
1) 48 2) 45 3) 50 4) 54

34. Two trains of some length, are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions with speed 65 km/hour and 85 km/hour respectively. They cross each other in 6 seconds. The length of each train is
1) 100 metre 2) 115 metre
3) 125 metre 4) 150 metre

35. A 320 metre long train takes 80 seconds more to cross a platform twice its length than it takes to cross a pole at the same speed. What is the speed of the train in metre/second ?
1) 16 2) 10 3) 6
4) None of these

36. In a isosceles triangle ABC, AB = AC; a circle drawn with AB as diameter intersects BC at D. If BD = 3 cm, then the length of CD is

1) 1.5cm 2) 5cm 3) 3cm 4) 6cm

37. A and B entered into a partnership with capitals in the ratio 4:5. After 3 months A withdrew of his capital and B withdrew of his capital. The gain at the end of 10 months was ` 760. A’s share in this profit is
1) 330 2) 360 3) 450 4) 540

38.The total area of a circle and a rectangle is equal to 1166 sq.cm. The diameter of the circle is 28 cms. What is the sum of the circumference of the circle and the perimeter of the rectangle if the length of the rectangle is 25 cm?
1) 186cm 2) 182cm 3) 184cm 4) None of these

39. Two circles touch externally. The sum of their areas is 130cm2 and the distance between their centres is 14 cm. Find the radius of the larger circle.
1) 8 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 11 cm

40. The length of the side of a square is 14cm. Find out the ratio of the radii of the inscribed and circumscribed circle of the square.
1) : 3 2) 2 : 1
3) : 1 4) 1 :

41. In what time would a cistern be filled by three pipes whose diameters are 1cm, 1 cm and 2cm, running together, when the largest pipe alone can fill it in 61 minutes; given that the amount of water flowing in by each pipe being proportional to the square of its diameter?
1) 32 minutes 2) 36 minutes
3) 40 minutes 4) 44 minutes

42. In a bag there are coins of 5 paise, 10 paise and 25 paise in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If there are all Rs 30, how many 5 paise coins are there?
1) 50 2) 100 3) 150 4) 200

43. Vivek is 30 years younger than his uncle today. 5 years ago, Vivek was th as old as his uncle. How old will Vivek’s uncle be 5 years from today?
1) 55 years 2) 45 years
3) 135 years 4) 50 years

44. Rs. 800 is divided among A, B and C so that Rs. 50 more than of A’s share, Rs. 20 more than of B’s share, Rs. 40 more than of C’s share are equal. What is B’s share?
1) Rs. 150 2) Rs. 270
3) Rs. 380 4) Rs. 420

45. If 5× 53÷ = 5a + 2, then the value of
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 8

46. A boat goes 24 km upstream and 28 km downstream in 6 hours. It goes 30 km upstream and 21 km downstream in 6 hours and 30 minutes. The speed of the boat in still water is
1) 8km/hr 2) 9 km/hr
3) 12 km/hr 4) 10 km/hr

47. Find three rational numbers between 2.5 and 3,
1) 2.65, 2. 701001071.. ..,2. 75
2) 2.8,0,2.75
3) 2.625, 2.75, 2.875
4) None of these.

48. On dividing a number by 13, we get 1 as remainder. If the quotient is divided by 5, we get 3 as a remainder. If this number is divided by 65, what will be the remainder?
1) 40 2) 18 3) 28 4) 16

Direction:- (49-50) following bar diagram shows the registration of cars and total vehicles (in thousands) during first six months of the year 2013 in Delhi.

49

49. What was the increase in registration of vehicles other than cars from Jan to April 2013?
1) 8000 2) 10000
3) 15000 4) 5000

50. What was the percentage of increase in registration of cars from May to June 2013 ?
1) 11 % 2) 39.28%
3) 64.7% 4) None of these

51. Which of the following is used to prevent soil erosion on hill slopes?
1) Afforestation 2) Crop Rotation
3) Water logging 4) Contour farming

52. Khilafat movement was started in India
1) for getting Muslim Homeland
2) as a protest against British suppression of Turks
3) to preserve Turkish Empire with Khilafat as temporal head
4) as a protest against communal politics

53. _____________are known as the “ecological hot spot of India”?
1) Western Ghats 2) Eastern Ghats
3) Western Himalayas 4) Sunderbans

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54. Which among the following countries are referred to as the ‘Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world?
1) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
2) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
3) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
4) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

55. What is depreciation?
1) Gross national product – Net national product
2) Net national product – Gross national product
3) Gross national product – Personal income
4) Personal income – Personal taxes

56. The Mughal emperor___________was illiterate.
1) Jahangir 2) ShahJahan
3) Akbar 4) Aurangazeb

57. What is an emulsion?
1) A colloid of gas in a liquid
2) A colloid of liquid in a liquid
3) A colloid of liquid in a gas
4) A colloid of gas in a solid

58. One nautical mile is the same as
1) 1852 metres 2) 2000 metres
3) 1575 metres 4) 2050 metres

59. ____________is also known as White Vitriol.
1) Zinc Sulphate
2) Potassium Chloride
3) Zinc Phosphate
4) Aluminium Oxide

60. What is a formalised system of trading agreements among groups of countries is known as?
1) Trading blocks 2) Trade ventures
3) Trade partners
4) Trade organizations
61. Whose writing influenced Mahatma Gandhi profoundly?
1) Bernard Shaw 2) Karl Marx
3) Lenin 4) Leo Tolstoy

62. Which day is celebrated as the National Sports Day of India?
1) July 29 2) August 29
3) April 26 4) October 20

63. _________ are the seismic sea waves which approach the coasts at great force
1) Tides 2) Tsunami
3) Current 4) Cyclone

64. _________are the depression formed by the deflating action of winds
1) Playas 2) Yardang
3) Ventifacts 4) Sand dunes

65. Which of the following does the Indian Standard Time relate to?
1) 75.5º E longitude
2) 82.5º E longitude
3) 90.5º E longitude 4) 0º longitude

66. ____________is the excess of price an individual is willing to pay rather than forego the consumption of the commodity.
1) Price 2) Profit
3) Producer surplus
4) Consumer surplus

67. Tetra ethyl lead is used as
1) a catalyst in burning fossil fuel
2) an antioxidant 3) a reductant
4) an antiknock compound

68. Which of the following is the star second nearest to the Earth after the Sun?
1) Vega 2) Sirius
3) Proxima Centauri
4) Alpha Centauri

69. The national anthem of Bangladesh “Amar Sonar Bangla” has been written by
1) Anisur Rahman
2) Rabindranath Tagore
3) Nazrul Islam
4) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

70. The right to free & compulsory education for children between the age of 6 and 14 was introduced in the constitution through
1) 21stAmendment 2) 86thAmendment
3) 91stAmendment 4) 97thAmendment

71. Which among the following isn’t an All India Service?
1) Indian Administration Service
2) Indian Police Service
3) Indian Foreign Service
4) Indian Forest Service

72. Sunderban forest can be classified as
1) Scrub jungles 2) Mangroves
3) Deciduous forests 4) Tundra

73. ___________is the unit for measurement of noise.
1) Watt 2) REM
3) Centigrade 4) Decibel

74. Who among the following defeated Arabs in 738 A. D.?
1) Pratiharas 2) Rashtrakutas
3) Palas 4) Chalukyas

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75. Who among the following founded Atmiya Sabha?
1) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
2) Swami Vivekananda
3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
4) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Directions (Q.76 to 79): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
In February this year, the government presented its new population policy with much fanfare. Although claiming to incorporate new and more effective incentives for population stabilization, a close examination of the policy reveals that it is more a “population discrimination” policy than an effective population management policy. Lacking in concrete measures, the crux of the policy rests on denying states representation to parliament based on their population. In other words – the essence of the population policy is that by taking away the democratic rights of those states whose population is growing too fast – i.e. the states in the Hindi belt – these states will somehow find a way of controlling their population. This is both naive and absurd – even as it is discriminatory and unethical under India’s constitution.
The new population policy is but a sophisticated excuse for passing the buck – and for ensuring that nothing concrete is done. Rather than investigate why the Hindi-belt states have failed to control their population and what the centre could do to facilitate that process, the centre has taken to a cheap discriminatory formulation that  essentially washes its hands off the problem – as if India as a whole will be unaffected by unsustainable population growth in the Hindi-belt states.
76. As per the passage, which of the following is true?
1). The new population policy is in line with the spirit of constitution
2). Tangible efforts have been made by the government towards the management of population
3). The centre has done little to find out why certain states have failed to contain their population
4). The new population policy is undemocratic, yet ethical in nature

77. The essence of the new population policy is
1). To refrain from taking any concrete steps towards solving the population problem
2). That a state is responsible for managing its population and centre has no right to interfere in it
3). That the states will come to manage their population if their democratic rights are denied
4). To punish the Hindi-belt states which are responsible for population explosion

78. The author is of the opinion that
1). India will not be affected by the unsustainable population growth in the Hindi-belt states
2). The new population policy is a pretext for the government to shirk away its responsibility
3). The government has not done enough in order to discipline the Hindi-belt states
4). It is the responsibility of the centre and not the state to sort out the population problem

79. As claimed by the government, the new population policy
1). Can be rightly termed as a “population discrimination” policy
2). Will teach a lesson to the Hindi-belt states
3). Is nothing but old wine in a new bottle
4). Has better provisions for ensuring population control

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Directions (Q.80 to 82): Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words / sentence.
80. One whose motive is merely to get money
1) Sinecure 2) Honorary
3) Mercenary 4) Red-tapism

81. To have a very high opinion of oneself
1) Exaggeration 2) Adulation
3) Abundance 4) Conceited

82. Government by a small group of people
1) clique 2) oligarchy
3) oligopoly 4) monarchy

Directions (Q.83 to 85): Given below are sentences where blanks have to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

83. Hardly had the guests arrived ………….it started snowing.
1) When 2) Before
3) After 4) Then

84. As no conclusive evidence was there, the accused were acquitted ………..the charge.
1) Of 2) From
3) Off 4) With

85. President has ………… the death penalty of the convict.
1) Set about 2) Set aside
3) Set down 4) Set upon

Directions (Q.86 to 89): Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, mark “No error” as your answer.
86. electrician has been repairing 1) / our water pump 2) / since two hours 3). No error 4)

87. she will agree not to scold me 1) / I will tell her the truth 2) / regarding the last week’s events 3). No error 4)

88. days many a youngster 1) / is upset 2) / because of lack of employment opportunities 3). No error 4)

89. has the Principal invited 1) / for the lecture on 2) / metaphysics this afternoon? 3). No error 4)

Directions:- (Q.90 to 92): Select the word in the following questions which is wrongly spelt.
90. 1) Sieze 2) Achieve
3) Weird 4) Leisure

91. 1) Vendetta 2) Vicarious
3) Vociferrate 4) Verisimilitude

92. 1) Poignant 2) Relevent
3) Prévalent 4) Malignant

Directions: (Q.93 to 95): A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (1), (2) and (3) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (4).

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93. Tell him that our leader has granted him the permission of stayin our country.
1) with staying 2) to stay
3) for stay 4) No improvement

94. If I was you, I wouldn’t trust a miscreant like him.

1) If I have been you 2) If I were you
3) If I have been you 4) No improvement

95. We were amazed through performance in the competition.
1) from 2) at
3) with 4) No improvement

Directions (Q.96 to 98): Select the word which is Opposite to the word given in CAPITALS
96. MUNIFICENT
1) Miserly 2) Faulty
3) Perplexing 4) Grandiose

97. JARRING
1). Disconcerting 2). Shocking
3). Mellifluous 4). Smothering

98.NEBULOUS
1). Clear 2). Young
3). Wholesome 4). Imprecise

Directions:- (Q.99 to 100): Choose the exact meaning of the idiomatic expressions/phrases
99. Bull in a China shop:
1) To make new plans
2) Warn of danger that is not there
3) Willing to fight and hurt others
4) A person with no tact who upsets others

100. Pie in the sky:
1) Beautiful surroundings
2) Event unlikely to happen
3) Rainy season
4) Foreign traditions

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Answer keys

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (2)

11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4)

21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (1)

31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4)

41. (2) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (1) 50. (3)

51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (1)

61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2)

71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (3) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (3)

81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (1) 84. (1) 85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (1)

91. (3) 92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100. (2)

The mock test is contributed by Vidya Guru Institute, New Delhi

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